- #1
JaysFan31
I just need confirmation.
I have a problem in my algebra class that says:
Prove that there are no ring homomorphisms from Z5 to Z7.
I have the following definition of ring homomorphism:
Let R and S be rings. A function R to S is a ring homomorphism if the following holds:
f(1R)=1S.
f(r1+r2)=f(r1)+f(r2) for all r1 and r2 in R.
f(r1r2)=f(r1)f(r2) for all r1 and r2 in R.
I've been thinking and wouldn't f(x)=0 work?
This is a problem in a published textbook so it doesn't make sense to me. Could anyone clue me into where there might be a contradiction in the definition?
Thanks in anticipation. Mike.
I have a problem in my algebra class that says:
Prove that there are no ring homomorphisms from Z5 to Z7.
I have the following definition of ring homomorphism:
Let R and S be rings. A function R to S is a ring homomorphism if the following holds:
f(1R)=1S.
f(r1+r2)=f(r1)+f(r2) for all r1 and r2 in R.
f(r1r2)=f(r1)f(r2) for all r1 and r2 in R.
I've been thinking and wouldn't f(x)=0 work?
This is a problem in a published textbook so it doesn't make sense to me. Could anyone clue me into where there might be a contradiction in the definition?
Thanks in anticipation. Mike.