Where's the flaw in this proof of the Collatz Conjecture?

In summary, the conjecture states that given a positive integer n, if n is even then divide by 2, and if n is odd then multiply by 3 and add 1. The conjecture claims that by repeating these operations, you will eventually reach 1. The proof attempts to find a counterexample to the conjecture, but is unable to do so, showing that n must have the form of a number with a remainder of -1 for some power of 2. The argument is then made that k must be even in order for the operations to work, leading to an infinitely large n, which is impossible. This is supported by two different approaches, one showing that a smaller number is reached, and the other proving
  • #1
raycb
4
0
The conjecture states that:

Given a positive integer n,

If n is even then divide by 2.

If n is odd then multiply by 3 and add 1

Conjecture: by repeating these operations you will eventually reach 1.



Proof:



Let n be the smallest positive integer that is a counterexample to the conjecture.

If n is even then it can be divided by two to give a smaller number, leading to a contradiction.

Assume n = 4k + 1.

Multiply it by 3, add 1, and divide by 2 twice.

The result is 3k + 1, a number smaller than n, leading to a contradiction. Therefore n has the form

n = 4k - 1.

Multiply by 3, add 1, and divide by 2.

The result is 6k - 1. If k is odd, then 6k - 1 is one more than a multiple of 4, which is impossible, therefore k is even, and n has the form

n = 8k - 1

Multiply by 3, add 1, and divide by 2.

The result is 12k -1, with k necessarily even. In this manner it can be proved that n must have the form 16k - 1, 32k -1, 64k -1, and so on, requiring n to be infinitely large, which is impossible.
 
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  • #2
raycb said:
The result is 12k -1, with k necessarily even.

Why must this k necessarily be even? Keep in mind that you are using the same letter k for two different quantities when you write n=4k-1 and n=8k-1 so showing that k is even in the first expression does not mean that the second k is.
 
  • #3
Well, I'm trying to say that n has the form of a number with a remainder of -1 for some power of 2.

The number 12k - 1 can be written as 8k + 4k -1, and the number has to have a remainder of -1 mod 8, therefore 4k is a multiple of 8, and k is even. My argument is that these operations always require k to be even, that there is a repeating pattern. All I can do is post it and see how others see it.
 
  • #4
Ok, I see your argument now. Can you explain your n=4k-1 case? You conclude that n=6k-1 and that k can not be odd because it would be one more than a multiple of 4. However, you only showed that the smallest counterexample could not have this form but 6k-1>4k-1=n, where n is the smallest counterexample so I don't see the problem.
 
  • #5
I'm attacking the problem in two different ways:

One, by proving that a number is reached that is smaller than n; two, by proving that n must have a remainder of -1 for a still higher power of 2.

The fact that 6k -1 > 4k -1 doesn't apply here. Once it is proven that k is even in 6k -1, then n not only has the form 4k -1, but it necessarily has the form 8k - 1.
 
  • #6
raycb said:
I'm attacking the problem in two different ways:

One, by proving that a number is reached that is smaller than n; two, by proving that n must have a remainder of -1 for a still higher power of 2.

The fact that 6k -1 > 4k -1 doesn't apply here. Once it is proven that k is even in 6k -1, then n not only has the form 4k -1, but it necessarily has the form 8k - 1.

And I'm disputing that the k in 6k-1 must be even. It doesn't matter whether 6k-1 is a one more than a multiple of four or not since it would not be the smallest counterexample even if it was (4k-1 would be).
 

What is the Collatz Conjecture?

The Collatz Conjecture is a mathematical conjecture that states that for any positive integer, if you repeatedly perform the following steps:

  • If the number is even, divide it by 2
  • If the number is odd, multiply it by 3 and add 1
The sequence of numbers will eventually reach 1.

What is the proof of the Collatz Conjecture?

To date, there is no known proof of the Collatz Conjecture. Mathematicians have been trying to prove or disprove this conjecture for decades, but it remains an unsolved problem in mathematics.

What is the flaw in the proof of the Collatz Conjecture?

There are multiple proposed proofs of the Collatz Conjecture, but all of them contain a flaw or an assumption that has not been proven. Some of these flaws include assuming the existence of infinite descent or using invalid mathematical operations.

Why is it difficult to find the flaw in the proof of the Collatz Conjecture?

The Collatz Conjecture is a notoriously difficult problem in mathematics and has been studied extensively by mathematicians. The difficulty lies in the fact that the conjecture involves a simple process that generates complex and unpredictable patterns, making it challenging to find a flaw in the proof.

What are the implications of a proof for the Collatz Conjecture?

If a proof for the Collatz Conjecture is found, it would have significant implications for number theory and mathematics as a whole. It would also open up new avenues for research and potentially lead to a better understanding of other unsolved problems in mathematics.

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