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one_raven
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I'm hoping for some help in understanding how the Michelson-Gale-Pearson experiment in 1925 is held as a refutation of the Stokes-Planck theory of gravitational aether drag.
If I understand the Stokes-Planck theory correctly, complete dragging of the aether near a sufficiently massive body (diminishing at distance, in accordance to the inverse square law as it applies to gravitational force) would be essentially indistinguishable from a complete dragging model. Wouldn't it also be indistinguishable from a non-aetheric model?
Didn't Michelson-Gale-Pearson support that?
What am I missing?
Thanks.
If I understand the Stokes-Planck theory correctly, complete dragging of the aether near a sufficiently massive body (diminishing at distance, in accordance to the inverse square law as it applies to gravitational force) would be essentially indistinguishable from a complete dragging model. Wouldn't it also be indistinguishable from a non-aetheric model?
Didn't Michelson-Gale-Pearson support that?
What am I missing?
Thanks.