Does the converse of Lenz's Law act to compensate for E flux?

[torquemada]

Lenz's Law says that the induced emf from a change in B flux creates a B field that compensates for the flux change. I know that a changing E field induces a magnetic field as well, but does that magnetic field act in a way to compensate for the change in the E field? Or is that not physically possible? If it does do that, then why is there no minus sign in Maxwell's law of induction

$\oint$B$\cdot$ds=$\mu$$_{0}$$\epsilon$$_{0}$$\frac{d\Phi_{E}}{dt}$


like there is a minus sign in Faraday's law of induction?

$\oint$E$\cdot$ds=-$\frac{d\Phi_{B}}{dt}$

If possible, please keep the answer at the intro E&M level. Much thanks in advance

 

[Vailanor]

. No, a changing E field does not induce a magnetic field that acts to compensate for the change in the E field. This is because Maxwell's law of induction is an expression of Faraday's law of induction, and Faraday's law states that a changing magnetic field induces an electric field. The minus sign in Faraday's law accounts for the fact that the induced electric field opposes the change in the magnetic field, and not vice versa.