
#1
Jan3014, 02:53 PM

P: 116

So far I have:
V=A_{carrier}sin(2∏F_{carrier}t) (1+C_{mod}sin(2∏F_{1}t)+C_{mod}sin(2∏F_{2}t)) which I think is pretty close to correct. Where: A is amplitude, F is freq, t is time, C_{mod}is the coefficient of modulation, i.e. 1=100% modulation. I can find plenty of websites offering 1tone AM, but not 2 or more tones. You actually have to mess with C_{mod}, because if you use 1, you get 200% modulation with two tones... I think. 



#2
Jan3014, 03:45 PM

Sci Advisor
P: 2,751

If we normalize the modulating signal such that [itex]1 \le x_m(t) \le 1[/itex] then the AM signal can be written as: [tex] v = A \sin(w_c t) (1 + M \, x_m(t))[/tex] Where A is the carrier amplitude and M is the modulation index. 


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