- #1
arthurhenry
- 43
- 0
I am following a proof in the text "Algebras of Linear Transformations" and having problem justifying this line: ... M is an invariant subspace so it has an eigenvector. Why should an invariant subspace have an eigenvector? Thank you
I have a feeling this is a very simple result, if so I am sorry
I have a feeling this is a very simple result, if so I am sorry