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qftinsanity
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I'm completely lost on this question in our QFT course, as is everyone I have asked in the class. The professor is a crazy old man who can do this stuff in his sleep, which must be helpful for him since that's about all he does.
I really have no idea what this question is asking, any guidance at all is very welcome. The question is reprinted below, verbatim.
I really have no idea what this question is asking, any guidance at all is very welcome. The question is reprinted below, verbatim.
As mentioned in lecture, using the Dirac equation for a single (positive energy) electron, the `Born approximation' low-energy gamma-electron scattering amplitude is dominated by the intermediate (virtual) state in which the electron has made a radiative transition (either absorbing the initial or emitting the final gamma) to a negative energy state, and so the energy denominator [ real minus virtual (intermediate) energy ] is [tex]\approx 2m[/tex]. On the other hand, for the (more realistic) many electron state of the positive energy electron plus the Dirac sea of filled negative energy electron modes, the radiative transition is of a sea electron to a positive energy mode and the energy denominator is [tex]\approx -2m[/tex]. Despite this different sign, the resulting scattering amplitude (Thomson amplitude) is the same as before. Explain this, in many-particle terms.