Showing that (m n) + (m n-1) = (m+1 n).

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In summary, the conversation is about a problem from Serge Lang's 'Basic Mathematics' book, which the person is struggling with. The problem involves proving that if n is a positive integer at most equal to m, then (m,n) + (m,n-1) = (m+1,n). The person is having trouble understanding how to manipulate factorials and the binomial coefficient in order to reach the desired identity. They are also feeling discouraged about their ability to understand this concept and become a theoretical physicist.
  • #1
Matthewkind
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Homework Statement



Show that if n is a positive integer at most equal to m, then
(m n) + (m n-1) = (m+1 n).

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I understand that (m n) = m!/n!(m-n)!. I'm not entirely sure how to figure out (m n-1) because the book I'm studying from never explains this. It merely explains factorials and then shows that (m n) = m!/n!(m-n)!; however, I can at least figure out by reasoning it out that (m n-1) = m!/(m-n+1)!(n-1)!. However, I cannot understand how the next step goes.

If we're adding m!/n!(m-n)! and m!/(m-n+1)!(n-1)! then I'm at a loss. The book says that the common denominator is n!(m-n+1)!, but I don't understand that. And the numerator comes out to be m!(m-n+1)+m!n?! This I just cannot understand! I've turned this problem over in my head for over and hour and still nothing! Please help!
 
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  • #2
This problem is from Serge Lang's 'Basic Mathematics' book. Chapter 1 - Numbers >> Rational Numbers >> Problem 7, part d.
 
  • #3
Since you have the two terms on the left expanded try expanding the individual terms.

Your book should say that n!= n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)...x3x2x1 right?

Well this can be written in a simpler manner, n!=n(n-1)!

See if you can simplify and bring both terms to a common denominator.
 
  • #4
The book doesn't say anything about how n! = n(n-1)!. But that confuses me. I'm new to factorials and the binomial coefficient, so I'm a little confounded at the moment. How is n! = n(n-1)! a simplification of n! = n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)...x3x2x1? :O
 
  • #5
What I mean to say is how can you drop all of those other terms?
 
  • #6
Also, if I write n! as n(n-1), then I get: m!/n(n-1)(m-n)! + m!/(m-n+1)!(n-1)!. I still can't quite make both denominators fit... I'm sorry for bothering you so much over a simple problem like this... I promise I'm trying. I think I'm just cracking under pressure.
 
  • #7
Hmm... Even if I can get both denominators to become the same, how does the numerator end up as: m!(m-n+1)+m!n?! If they have a common denominator, shouldn't I be able to just add m! and m! together?
 
  • #8
Matthewkind said:
The book doesn't say anything about how n! = n(n-1)!. But that confuses me. I'm new to factorials and the binomial coefficient, so I'm a little confounded at the moment. How is n! = n(n-1)! a simplification of n! = n(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)...x3x2x1? :O

If you don't understand why n!=n*(n-1)! then you are cracking under pressure. That's the most basic thing about factorials. 3*2*1=3*(2*1). So 3!=3*2!.
 
  • #9
Oooooh. I see! Sorry. XD I get how n! = n(n-1)!. Goshhhh. How silly.
 
  • #10
So then m! = m(m-1) as well. So I can also set m! = m(m-1) as both numerators. But there are still some steps I seem to be missing. Blargh, what am I missing?! ;___; And why is this only introduced as a problem with no explanation?
 
  • #11
I've been working through a bunch of different proofs and maybe I just need a break. I'm a bit discouraged that I don't understand what I'm doing when it comes to this part, but maybe it's alright. I just really want to be a theoretical physicist and it certainly is silly that such problems are slowing me down!
 
  • #12
Matthewkind said:
Oooooh. I see! Sorry. XD I get how n! = n(n-1)!. Goshhhh. How silly.

Ok then the rest of it goes the same. Express (m, n-1) and (m+1, n) as some factor times (m,n). Then show you have an identity.
 
  • #13
I'm already nineteen and I'm still struggling with this stuff! Is it even possible for me to grasp differential geometry and tensor analysis in my lifetime at this rate?!
 
  • #14
Dick said:
Ok then the rest of it goes the same. Express (m, n-1) and (m+1, n) as some factor times (m,n). Then show you have an identity.

I don't understand what you mean. Where are you getting (m, n-1) and (m+1, n)? ;__;
 
  • #15
Matthewkind said:
I've been working through a bunch of different proofs and maybe I just need a break. I'm a bit discouraged that I don't understand what I'm doing when it comes to this part, but maybe it's alright. I just really want to be a theoretical physicist and it certainly is silly that such problems are slowing me down!

Becoming a theoretical physicist involves a number of challenges and this isn't the greatest of them by a long shot. It's not alright if you can't do this. Do it.
 
  • #16
Oh, sorry. I meant it's alright if I take a break to cool my head. XD No, I won't leave any stones upright in this area!
 
  • #17
Matthewkind said:
I don't understand what you mean. Where are you getting (m, n-1) and (m+1, n)? ;__;

I'm getting them from your problem statement. Don't you remember?
 
  • #18
Oh, the commas confused me. The way it's written there were no commas. I see. Let me try re-starting the problem.
 
  • #19
(m, n) + (m, n-1) = (m+1, n). That's what I'm supposed to prove. So (m, n) = m!/n!(m-n!) and (m, n-1) = m!/(m-n+1)!(n-1)!. If I expand it, then I get: m(m-1)/n(n-1)(m-n)! + m(m-1)/(m-n+1)!(n-1)!. However, then I get stuck.
 
  • #20
I know that (m+1, n) = (m+1)!/n!((m+1)-n)!. But I can't get to this because I am still not sure what to do after I hit what was mentioned above...
 
  • #21
Can you show, for example, that (m,n-1)=(m,n)*n/(m-n+1)? It's a pretty simple extension of n!=n*(n-1)!.
 
  • #22
How do you do that? (m,n-1) = m!/(n-1)!(m-n+1)!. (m,n) = m!/n!(m-n)!.

m!/n!(m-n)! multiplied by n/(m-n+1)? Where does that part come in? I mean, if (m,n) + (m,n-1) = (m+1, n), then wouldn't (m+1, n) - (m,n) = (m,n-1)? I'm so completely confused!
 
  • #23
I can't take it anymore. I'm losing my mind. I need to stop and come back to this later. I don't even have any more hair to pull.
 
  • #24
Thanks for trying to help me. I learned a bit about the nature of the problem (which was never even touched upon in the book for some reason...).
 
  • #25
Matthewkind said:
Thanks for trying to help me. I learned a bit about the nature of the problem (which was never even touched upon in the book for some reason...).

You can easily express factorials in terms of the factorial of a quantity that differs by 1. E.g. (n-1)!=n!/n. (m-n+1)!=(m-n)!*(m-n+1). It will probably look a lot easier when you come back to this.
 
  • #26
Yes! Thank you so much! I believe I have solved the problem!

I first expanded the problem so that (m, n-1) + (m, n) = (m+1, n) is m!/n!(m-n)! + m!/(n-1)!(m-n+1)! = (m+1)!/n!(m-n+1)!.

Next I took the four terms of all denominators: n! (m-n)! (n-1)! and (m-n+1)! and multiplied them by each term to cancel out the fractional forms. I'm left with:

m!(n-1)!(m-n+1)! + m!n!(m-n)! = (m+1)!(m-n)!(n-1)!. So I have to get both of these sides equal, right?

Next, I expanded what I thought was necessary in order to factor out the correct terms.

m!(n-1)!(m-n+1)(m-n)! + m!n(n-1)!(m-n)! = (m+1)!(m-n)!(n-1)!. Then I factored.

m!(n-1)!(m-n)![m-n+1+n] = (m+1)!(m-n)!(n-1)!.

Then I added the two n terms together.

m!(m-n)!(n-1)![m+1] = (m+1)!(m-n)!(n-1)!. Finally I multiplied m! and [m+1] to get:

(m+1)!(m-n)!(n-1)! = (m+1)!(m-n)!(n-1)!

I know that I'm pretty silly for not being able to do this, but I am just now embarking on my mathematical quest. I finished this earlier and it looked to me like beauty. I wonder: do you all feel this way or am I being unnecessarily sentimental? I felt like crying with joy.
 
  • #27
But you're right. I was being so close-minded at the time. I wonder why getting so worked up inhibits my ability to solve a problem logically. :/
 

1. How do you prove that (m n) + (m n-1) = (m+1 n)?

To prove this equation, you can use mathematical induction. First, the base case (n=1) can be verified by substituting n=1 into the equation to show that it holds true. Then, assume that the equation holds for some arbitrary value of n. By using this assumption, you can manipulate the equation to show that it also holds for (n+1). Therefore, by verifying the base case and showing that the equation holds for n+1, you have proven that the equation is true for all values of n.

2. What is the significance of (m n) + (m n-1) = (m+1 n)?

This equation is significant because it shows a relationship between the sum of two consecutive terms in Pascal's triangle. It can also be interpreted as a way to calculate the number of ways to choose n objects from a set of m+1 objects, by either taking one more object or not.

3. Can this equation be applied to other mathematical concepts?

Yes, this equation can be applied to other mathematical concepts, such as binomial coefficients, combinations, and permutations. It can also be used in various proofs and calculations involving Pascal's triangle.

4. Are there any real-life applications of this equation?

Yes, there are many real-life applications of this equation. For example, it can be used in probability and statistics to calculate the number of possible outcomes in a given scenario. It can also be applied in computer science and programming to determine the number of combinations and permutations in a set of data.

5. How does this equation relate to the binomial theorem?

This equation is closely related to the binomial theorem, which states that (a+b)^n = ΣnCr * a^(n-r) * b^r, where nCr represents the combination of n objects taken r at a time. By substituting a=1 and b=1, this theorem can be used to prove the equation (m n) + (m n-1) = (m+1 n).

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