
#1
Mar1412, 01:31 PM

P: 58

Prove that [itex]J_1(x)=\frac{1}{\pi}\int_0^\pi\cos(\thetax\sin\theta)d\theta[/itex] by showing that the righthand side satisfies Bessel's equation of order 1 and that the derivative has the value [itex]J_1'(0)[/itex] when [itex]x=0[/itex]. Explain why this constitutes a proof.



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