- #1
pellman
- 684
- 5
Are the factorials a part of the standard definition of the wedge product? Is there an overwhelming majority or does the definition tend to vary from author to author? (As many other things do.) What I am referring to is: given two one-forms [tex]\sigma[/tex] and [tex]\omega[/tex] does everyone pretty much use
[tex]\sigma\wedge\omega\equiv\frac{1}{2!}(\sigma\otimes\omega-\omega\otimes\sigma)[/tex]
or do some leave off the 1/2!? I'm reading a book in which it appears so far that the author is using simply [tex]\sigma\wedge\omega\equiv\sigma\otimes\omega-\omega\otimes\sigma[/tex] , but I'm not sure if he meant to or just made a mistake.
[tex]\sigma\wedge\omega\equiv\frac{1}{2!}(\sigma\otimes\omega-\omega\otimes\sigma)[/tex]
or do some leave off the 1/2!? I'm reading a book in which it appears so far that the author is using simply [tex]\sigma\wedge\omega\equiv\sigma\otimes\omega-\omega\otimes\sigma[/tex] , but I'm not sure if he meant to or just made a mistake.