- #1
Ralph Spencer
- 21
- 0
One of our senior teachers talked about infinity and said that 1∞ is not defined. On deeper probing, he said that it is a bit higher mathematics and it wouldn't be appropriate to go deeper here. Naturally, I could think of a inductive proof that it should be 1, if ∞ ∊ N. I can't think of a reason why this is untrue.