- #1
brad sue
- 281
- 0
Hi,
I have this question:
if f and [tex] f \circ g [/tex] are 1 to 1 functions, does it follow that g is 1-1 function?
My answer is NO g doesn't have to be 1-1 function.
for example ,
if g(3)=4 and g(7)=4,
then f( g(3) )= f( G(7) )=f(4) will produce the 1-1 function property.
Is my reasonning OK??
B
I have this question:
if f and [tex] f \circ g [/tex] are 1 to 1 functions, does it follow that g is 1-1 function?
My answer is NO g doesn't have to be 1-1 function.
for example ,
if g(3)=4 and g(7)=4,
then f( g(3) )= f( G(7) )=f(4) will produce the 1-1 function property.
Is my reasonning OK??
B