- #1
birdbybird
- 3
- 0
So this is the question...
In the direct circuit diagram below (please see the attached file), Resistors 1 and 3 have fixed resistances (R1 and R3, respectively), which are known. Resistor 2 is a variable (or adjustable) resistor, and the resistance of Resistor 4 is unknown.
Show that if Resistor 2 is adjusted until the ammeter shown registers no current through its branch, then
R1R4 = R2R3
(This circuit arrangement is known as a Wheatstone bridge.)
and the solution says...
blahblahblah..and then
"Since no current flows between Points a and b, there must be no potential difference between a and b; they're at the same potential. (so i was like, ok i understand that) So the voltage drop from a to c must equal the voltage drop from b o c. <-- this is the part i don't get... why does having the same potential mean that they both have equal voltage drop?
I would be every so pleased if someone could explain this to me..
In the direct circuit diagram below (please see the attached file), Resistors 1 and 3 have fixed resistances (R1 and R3, respectively), which are known. Resistor 2 is a variable (or adjustable) resistor, and the resistance of Resistor 4 is unknown.
Show that if Resistor 2 is adjusted until the ammeter shown registers no current through its branch, then
R1R4 = R2R3
(This circuit arrangement is known as a Wheatstone bridge.)
and the solution says...
blahblahblah..and then
"Since no current flows between Points a and b, there must be no potential difference between a and b; they're at the same potential. (so i was like, ok i understand that) So the voltage drop from a to c must equal the voltage drop from b o c. <-- this is the part i don't get... why does having the same potential mean that they both have equal voltage drop?
I would be every so pleased if someone could explain this to me..