- #1
aceetobee
- 6
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Can someone explain why the following improper integral diverges?
Integral 1/x dx from -1 to 1
I know if you break it up the individual integrals (from -1 to 0 and 0 to 1) diverge to negative infinity and infinity, whose sum is indeterminant in general, but the symmetry of the integral suggests it "should be zero".
Thanks!
Integral 1/x dx from -1 to 1
I know if you break it up the individual integrals (from -1 to 0 and 0 to 1) diverge to negative infinity and infinity, whose sum is indeterminant in general, but the symmetry of the integral suggests it "should be zero".
Thanks!