Proving f(0)=f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology with a Continuous Function

  • Thread starter Ted123
  • Start date
In summary: But it seems like you're saying that if a=b, then f is continuous, which is what I was trying to show. Thanks for clearing that up for me.Ok, this is really not my day. You are right. I thought you had to prove f continuous iff a=b. I saw the double arrow in your original post and fixated on it. But it seems like you're saying that if a=b, then f is continuous, which is what I was trying to show. Thanks for clearing that up for me.
  • #1
Ted123
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0

Homework Statement



Let [itex]X=\{0,1\}[/itex] with the Sierpinski topology [itex]\tau = \{ \emptyset , \{0\} ,\{0,1\} \}[/itex].

Suppose [itex]f:X\to \mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous.

Show [itex]f(0)=f(1)[/itex].

[Potentially useful observation: [itex]\{f(0)\}[/itex] is closed in [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex].]

The Attempt at a Solution



[itex]f:X\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous [itex]\iff[/itex] for every open (closed) set [itex]A\subseteq \mathbb{R},\;f^*(A)[/itex] is open (closed) in [itex]X[/itex].

How to show f(0)=f(1)?
 
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  • #2
Suppose the contrary, and find an open set whose preimage is {1}.
 
  • #3
Citan Uzuki said:
Suppose the contrary, and find an open set whose preimage is {1}.

Does [itex]f^*(\{0\}) = \{1\}[/itex]?
 
  • #4
Ted123 said:
Does [itex]f^*(\{0\}) = \{1\}[/itex]?

Who could say until you define what f is?? Follow Citan Uzuki's advice and define f(0)=a and f(1)=b where a and b are unequal real numbers. Is f continuous?
 
  • #5
Dick said:
Who could say until you define what f is?? Follow Citan Uzuki's advice and define f(0)=a and f(1)=b where a and b are unequal real numbers. Is f continuous?

So [itex]\{a\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]\{b\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex] are closed, and [itex]f^*(\{a\})=\{0\} \subseteq X[/itex] is closed in [itex]X[/itex] but [itex]f^*(\{a\})=\{1\}[/itex] is not closed in [itex]X[/itex] so [itex]f[/itex] is not continuous - contradiction; therefore [itex]f(0)=f(1)[/itex]?
 
  • #6
Ted123 said:
So [itex]\{a\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]\{b\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex] are closed, and [itex]f^*(\{a\})=\{0\} \subseteq X[/itex] is closed in [itex]X[/itex] but [itex]f^*(\{a\})=\{1\}[/itex] is not closed in [itex]X[/itex] so [itex]f[/itex] is not continuous - contradiction; therefore [itex]f(0)=f(1)[/itex]?

^ That should say [itex]f^*(\{b\})=\{1\}[/itex] but I can't find an edit button!
 
  • #7
Ted123 said:
So [itex]\{a\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex] and [itex]\{b\} \subseteq \mathbb{R}[/itex] are closed, and [itex]f^*(\{a\})=\{0\} \subseteq X[/itex] is closed in [itex]X[/itex] but [itex]f^*(\{a\})=\{1\}[/itex] is not closed in [itex]X[/itex] so [itex]f[/itex] is not continuous - contradiction; therefore [itex]f(0)=f(1)[/itex]?

Right. Now to finish up show that if a=b then f IS continuous.
 
  • #8
That approach will work, but you're doing it backwards. {0} is not closed in X, because its complement is {1}, which is not in the topology on X. So the conclusion that f is not continuous comes from the fact that f*({a}) = 0, not the fact that f*({b}) = 1.
 
  • #9
Ted123 said:
^ That should say [itex]f^*(\{b\})=\{1\}[/itex] but I can't find an edit button!

Yeah, actually I didn't notice, but you right. My 'Edit' button disappeared for a while yesterday. Seems to be back now. At least for me. Citan Uzuki is also right. I didn't notice you'd swapped the open and closed either. Guess I should read more carefully.
 
  • #10
Dick said:
Yeah, actually I didn't notice, but you right. My 'Edit' button disappeared for a while yesterday. Seems to be back now. At least for me. Citan Uzuki is also right. I didn't notice you'd swapped the open and closed either. Guess I should read more carefully.

If we have a contradiction after supposing [itex]a\neq b[/itex] doesn't that mean we must have [itex]a=b[/itex]?
 
  • #11
Ted123 said:
If we have a contradiction after supposing [itex]a\neq b[/itex] doesn't that mean we must have [itex]a=b[/itex]?

No! All you've shown is that if a not equal b is then f is not continuous. How can that be a proof that if a=b then f is continuous? There might not be ANY continuous functions.
 
  • #12
Dick said:
No! All you've shown is that if a not equal b is then f is not continuous. How can that be a proof that if a=b then f is continuous? There might not be ANY continuous functions.

But we're assuming all along that [itex]f:X\to \mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous (as the question tells us this!)
 
  • #13
Ted123 said:
But we're assuming all along that [itex]f:X\to \mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous (as the question tells us this!)

Ok, this is really not my day. You are right. I thought you had to prove f continuous iff a=b. I saw the double arrow in your original post and fixated on it.
 

1. How is the Sierpinski Topology defined?

The Sierpinski Topology is a topology on a set with two elements, {0,1}, where the open sets are the empty set, {0}, and the entire set {0,1}. This topology is also known as the anti-discrete topology.

2. What does it mean for a function to be continuous in the Sierpinski Topology?

A function f is continuous in the Sierpinski Topology if and only if the inverse image of every open set in the range {0,1} is an open set in the domain {0,1}. In other words, if the inverse image of {0} is an open set, then f(0)=f(1), as {0} and {0,1} are the only open sets in the Sierpinski Topology.

3. Why is it important to prove f(0)=f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology?

Proving f(0)=f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology is important because it is a fundamental property of continuous functions in this topology. It also helps in understanding the behavior of continuous functions in other topologies.

4. How can one prove f(0)=f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology?

To prove f(0)=f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology, one can use the definition of continuity and show that the inverse image of {0} is an open set. This can be done by considering the different cases where f(0)=0 and f(0)=1, and showing that in both cases, the inverse image of {0} is an open set.

5. Is it possible for f(0) to not equal f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology?

No, it is not possible for f(0) to not equal f(1) in the Sierpinski Topology, as this would violate the definition of continuity in this topology. In other words, if f(0) does not equal f(1), then the inverse image of {0} would not be an open set, which contradicts the definition of continuity.

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