- #1
bobsmith76
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I don't get the following passage from my textbook. Why can't the magnetic force be measured? I don't see why there is no unit for p.
If one pole of a long, thin bar magnet is placed in the vicinity of one pole of another long, thin bar magnet, Coulomb’s magnetic force law states: The magnetic force F between one pole of magnetic strength p1 and another pole of magnetic strength p2 is inversely proportional to the square of the distance r between
them, or F ∝ p1p2/2 . It is not possible, however, to find a proportionality constant, because it is not possible to define a unit for p, a magnetic monopole
If one pole of a long, thin bar magnet is placed in the vicinity of one pole of another long, thin bar magnet, Coulomb’s magnetic force law states: The magnetic force F between one pole of magnetic strength p1 and another pole of magnetic strength p2 is inversely proportional to the square of the distance r between
them, or F ∝ p1p2/2 . It is not possible, however, to find a proportionality constant, because it is not possible to define a unit for p, a magnetic monopole