- #1
provolus
- 18
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Hi everybody! I'm studying this paper "Unambiguous discrimination among quantum operations" http://pra.aps.org/abstract/PRA/v73/i4/e042301 and they state that
Ok, it's well known, but then I took a review of the notes to my course of quantum information and i found this not proven proposition:
Well, I'm not able to arrange a sounded proof of this simple proposition: i guess i have to choose a base and decompose spectrally the operator but I'm not able to go on. could someone be so kind to show me how to do or at least to suggest me a book or a paper where i could find a proof?
Thank!
It is well known that a set of
quantum states can be perfectly distinguished if and only if
they are orthogonal to each other.
Ok, it's well known, but then I took a review of the notes to my course of quantum information and i found this not proven proposition:
consider two states \rho_1 and \rho_2 (density operators) of a finite quantum system: if exists a projector \Pi_1 such that trace(\rho_1\Pi_1)=1 and trace(\rho_2\Pi_1)=0 then the two states are disntinguishable with certainty if and only if supp(\rho_1) is orthogonal to supp(\rho_2)
Well, I'm not able to arrange a sounded proof of this simple proposition: i guess i have to choose a base and decompose spectrally the operator but I'm not able to go on. could someone be so kind to show me how to do or at least to suggest me a book or a paper where i could find a proof?
Thank!