## lorentzian curve

Is a lorentzian curve by definition normalized? As far as I can tell it is such that ∫L(x) = 1.
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 Quote by Sirben4 Is a lorentzian curve by definition normalized? As far as I can tell it is such that ∫L(x) = 1.
If we define it as $L(x) = \frac{1}{\pi} \frac{\frac{1}{2} \Gamma}{(x-x_0)^2 + (\frac{1}{2} \Gamma)^2}$, then $\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} L(x) \ dx = 1$.

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