- #1
DMuitW
- 26
- 0
Up to today no underlying hidden variables that determine what is called the quantum uncertainty have been demonstrated.
Consider :
We have a setting that includes a geiger counter and a computer.
This computer has a button, which, when we press it, starts a clock. This computer is attached to a geiger counter, which if it detects a (random) electron decay, signs a signal to the computer to stop the clock. Let's say if the clock stops at an even 1/1000th second number, it generates a 0, if its stopped at an uneven 1/1000th second number, it generates a 1.
This experiment is well known, and will generate if repeated long enough, on the long run almost as much 0's as 1's (Binomial distribution). There is room for deviations, but usually within a small degree of freedom.
My Question now is, WHY does this experiment, which should be dependent on really RANDOM quantum mechanic occassions (QM as total chaos) generate a quite clear binomial distribution and in the end in theory almost as much 0's as 1's instead of a total random output?
Consider :
We have a setting that includes a geiger counter and a computer.
This computer has a button, which, when we press it, starts a clock. This computer is attached to a geiger counter, which if it detects a (random) electron decay, signs a signal to the computer to stop the clock. Let's say if the clock stops at an even 1/1000th second number, it generates a 0, if its stopped at an uneven 1/1000th second number, it generates a 1.
This experiment is well known, and will generate if repeated long enough, on the long run almost as much 0's as 1's (Binomial distribution). There is room for deviations, but usually within a small degree of freedom.
My Question now is, WHY does this experiment, which should be dependent on really RANDOM quantum mechanic occassions (QM as total chaos) generate a quite clear binomial distribution and in the end in theory almost as much 0's as 1's instead of a total random output?