Relation between the spinor and wave function formalisms

In summary, the conversation discusses the relationship between the wave function and spin in quantum mechanics. The wave function represents the position of a particle while the spinor represents its spin state. The Schrodinger equation was found to be incomplete due to spin effects evident in experiments such as the Stern-Gerlach experiment. The Dirac equation is a more complete non-relativistic limit of the Schrodinger equation. The historical context of these developments is also discussed.
  • #1
nmbr28albert
13
3
Hello everyone, this has been on my mind for a while and I finally realized I could just ask on here for some input :)

I think in general, when most people start learning quantum mechanics, they are under the impression that the wave function [itex]\Psi[/itex] represents everything you could possibly know about, say, an electron. If you want to know the expectation value of something, simply stick in the operator and integrate. However, when you get to spin, the spinor is introduced for spin 1/2 particles, which is a 2-D vector, and the corresponding operators are matrices. Is the spinor encoded in the wave function somehow? Or are they two distinct pieces to describing a particle?
 
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  • #2
In non-relativistic quantum theory the spin operator commutes with the position operator and thus you can find common generalized eigenstates [itex]|\vec{x},\sigma_z \rangle[/itex]. The appropriate wave function for a non-relativistic particle with spin is thus a spinor field
[tex]\psi_{\sigma_z}(t,\vec{x})=\langle \vec{x},\sigma_z|\Psi(t) \rangle.[/tex]
 
  • #3
nmbr28Albert said:
Is the spinor encoded in the wave function somehow? Or are they two distinct pieces to describing a particle?

Wavefunction generally refers to the position representation of the state of a system. If we have a system with position and spin degrees of freedom then the state will factorize into a product state of spin and position because these two operators commute. We can then take the representation of this product state in the simultaneous eigenbasis of spin and position. This is what vanhees wrote above. The result will be a wavefunction (infinite dimensional vector) tensored into a complex
dimension 2 vector which represents the spin state of the system in the basis of spin operator.

When we write this the end result is ##\psi(x)\otimes (a,b)^T## which is often written as ##(\psi_{1/2},\psi_{-1/2})^T##. This is the spinor. It is basically just a 2-component wave function for spin 1/2 particles. In general it will be an n-component wavefunction where n is the dimension of the vector space spanned by the eigenbasis of the spin operator for a given particle species (these representations are just generalizations of the Pauli matrices). The 2-component wavefunction, or spinor, can then be directly incorporated into the Schrodinger equation. See Schrodinger-Pauli equation.
 
  • #4
I see, so since the spin operators cannot be derived from the position and momentum operators, it seems to me that the original schrodinger equation is not the complete non-relativistic limit of the dirac equation, which is actually the pauli equation. In the historical context then, was the Schrodinger equation proposed and found to be incomplete due to spin effects evident in experiments such as the Stern-Gerlach experiment? Since the Schrodinger equation was proposed prior to the Stern-Gerlach experiment for example, someone must have noticed that the equation did not explain these anomalous effects.
 
  • #5
nmbr28Albert said:
I see, so since the spin operators cannot be derived from the position and momentum operators, it seems to me that the original schrodinger equation is not the complete non-relativistic limit of the dirac equation, which is actually the pauli equation.

Yes this is true. You will find a derivation of the Schrodinger-Pauli equation from the non-relativistic limit of the Dirac equation in many books. See e.g. section 3.6 of Maggiore "A Modern Introduction to Quantum Field Theory".

See also http://scipp.ucsc.edu/~dine/ph217/217_dirac_nr.pdf and http://www.physics.usyd.edu.au/ugrad/hons/hons_webct/RQM/rqm8.pdf

nmbr28Albert said:
In the historical context then, was the Schrodinger equation proposed and found to be incomplete due to spin effects evident in experiments such as the Stern-Gerlach experiment?

I don't have knowledge of the history so someone else will have to answer this.
 
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  • #6
Actually in 1926 both the relativistic and non=relativistic equations came up, but Pauli's work of 1927 was merely putting it in agreement with the Stern-Gerlach experiment. The notion of spin was coined roughly in the same year, but by Ehrenfest (iirc). Dirac set the things right in 1928. All previous 3 equations were soon proved to be merely approximations.
 

1. What is the difference between spinors and wave functions?

Spinors and wave functions are two different mathematical representations used to describe the quantum state of a particle. Wave functions are used in the Schrödinger equation to describe the probability amplitude of finding a particle in a particular location. Spinors, on the other hand, are used in the Dirac equation to describe the intrinsic angular momentum, or spin, of a particle.

2. How are spinors and wave functions related?

Spinors and wave functions are related through the spinor wave function, which combines both the spatial wave function and the spinor components to fully describe the quantum state of a particle. The spinor wave function is used in the Dirac equation to predict the behavior of fermions, such as electrons, in quantum systems.

3. Can spinors and wave functions be used interchangeably?

No, spinors and wave functions cannot be used interchangeably. They represent different physical quantities and have different mathematical properties. Spinors are used to describe the spin of a particle, while wave functions describe the spatial probability of finding a particle in a particular location.

4. Is the spinor wave function the only way to describe quantum particles?

No, the spinor wave function is not the only way to describe quantum particles. There are other mathematical representations, such as matrix mechanics and path integral formalism, that can also be used to describe the behavior of particles in quantum systems. However, the spinor wave function is the most commonly used representation for fermions.

5. Are spinors and wave functions limited to describing only fermions?

No, spinors and wave functions can also be used to describe bosons, which are particles with integer spin. However, the mathematical properties of spinors and wave functions differ for bosons and fermions, as bosons follow Bose-Einstein statistics and fermions follow Fermi-Dirac statistics.

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