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STS816
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My physics teacher told my class that in order for there to movement, there must be a net force on an object. He also said that when an object reaches terminal velocity the Fnet is zero because air resistance equals that of the object's weight. Then, he said that the object continues to fall because of Newton's First Law.
Now my problem here is that I understand Newton's first law works the way it does because of the object's inertia. But if there is no Fnet on an object and the object is moving solely on its inertia through the air, wouldn't air resistance continue to slow it down?
I think the problem is coming from the first thing my teacher said. I think he meant to say that in order for there to be acceleration, there needs to be a net force. I probably just answered my own question in some way but I just want to be sure. Thanks.
Now my problem here is that I understand Newton's first law works the way it does because of the object's inertia. But if there is no Fnet on an object and the object is moving solely on its inertia through the air, wouldn't air resistance continue to slow it down?
I think the problem is coming from the first thing my teacher said. I think he meant to say that in order for there to be acceleration, there needs to be a net force. I probably just answered my own question in some way but I just want to be sure. Thanks.