- #1
danni7070
- 92
- 0
If I have [tex] (a_n + b_n)^n = c_n [/tex] where a_n is convergent and b_n divergent. Is c_n then divergent?
And what if a_n and b_n were divergent, would c_n be divergent also?
but what if they were both convergent then surely c_n is convergent right?
I can't see a rule or a theorem that tells me this is correct and frankly it is getting on my nerve.
Somebody here who knows?
Thanks.
And what if a_n and b_n were divergent, would c_n be divergent also?
but what if they were both convergent then surely c_n is convergent right?
I can't see a rule or a theorem that tells me this is correct and frankly it is getting on my nerve.
Somebody here who knows?
Thanks.