- #1
Kakateo
- 4
- 0
I was wondering that if told the functions for f(x) and g(x) are different, can f-g ever equal g-f?
My take on this was that they can never equal each other but some of my friends said they can sometimes equal each other because they plugged in x=0 for f(x) = 2x and g(x) = 3x. I was told that I couldn't put any random coordinates in.
Another instance I just thought of is 1^x and 1^2x, as both will always equal 1, holding the equality statement true. However, wouldn't those two equations be the same as writing y=1 therefore having the same function?
I'm not really sure so I ask for guidance please :)
My take on this was that they can never equal each other but some of my friends said they can sometimes equal each other because they plugged in x=0 for f(x) = 2x and g(x) = 3x. I was told that I couldn't put any random coordinates in.
Another instance I just thought of is 1^x and 1^2x, as both will always equal 1, holding the equality statement true. However, wouldn't those two equations be the same as writing y=1 therefore having the same function?
I'm not really sure so I ask for guidance please :)