Calculate Laplace Transform with Im(k)=0, Im(p)=0

In summary, the Mathematica 5 doesn't calculate this: \frac{k}{p^{2}}L(\frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{z+p})+\frac{1}{p^{2}}L[-\frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{(z+p)^{2}}] =\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\sqrt{(\frac{z+p}{p})^{2}-1}}{\frac{z+p}{p}} e^{-sz} dz (3) =e^{
  • #1
anv
4
0
I have a proplem to analitic calculate this :

(k/p^2)*LaplaceTransform[Sqrt[z^2+2p*z]/(z+p)],z,k]+
(1/p^2)*LaplaceTransform[-Sqrt[z^2+2p*z]/(z+p)^2],z,k]

Im(k)=0, k>0
Im(p)=0, p>0

The Mathematica 5 doesn't calculate this.

Very glad to help.
 
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  • #2
anv said:
I have a proplem to analitic calculate this :

(k/p^2)*LaplaceTransform[Sqrt[z^2+2p*z]/(z+p)],z,k]+
(1/p^2)*LaplaceTransform[-Sqrt[z^2+2p*z]/(z+p)^2],z,k]

Im(k)=0, k>0
Im(p)=0, p>0

The Mathematica 5 doesn't calculate this.

Very glad to help.

Let me make sure I've got it straight.I'll think about it later.So u want to compute
[tex] I=\frac{k}{p^{2}}L(\frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{z+p})+\frac{1}{p^{2}}L[-\frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{(z+p)^{2}}] [/tex]
??That's an ugly "animal"... :tongue2:

Did u try other version of Mathematica ?? :tongue2:

Daniel.

PS.I'll work on it...I smell some Bessel functions...
 
  • #3
You undestand me right!

I didn't use other version, but I found the new release 5.1 at http://www.wolfram.com
 
  • #4
[tex] I=L(\frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{z+p})=\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{z+p}e^{-sz} dz [/tex](1)

[tex]J=L[-\frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{(z+p)^{2}}]=-\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\sqrt{z^{2}+2pz}}{(z+p)^{2}}e^{-sz} dz [/tex](2)

The first integral,i complete the square under the sq.root and make a substitution:
[tex] I=\int_{0}^{+\infty} \frac{\sqrt{(\frac{z+p}{p})^{2}-1}}{\frac{z+p}{p}} e^{-sz} dz [/tex](3)

And now i make the substitution
[tex] \frac{z+p}{p}\rightarrow \cosh t [/tex](4)
[tex]dz=p\sinh t dt [/tex](5)
The limits of integration are the same ([itex] \arg\cosh 1 =0 [/itex]).
The exponential becomes:
[tex] e^{-sz}=e^{sp}e^{-sp\cosh t} [/tex](6)

Therefore
[tex] I=p e^{sp}\int_{0}^{+\infty} e^{-sp\cosh t}\frac{\sinh^{2} t}{\cosh t} dt[/tex] (7)

Can u convince 'Mathematica' to evaluate this integral??Maybe numerically...

Using the same kind of substitution,for evaluating the second integral (L.transform),u get
[tex] J=e^{sp} \int_{0}^{+\infty} e^{-sp\cosh t}\frac{\sinh^{2} t}{\cosh^{2} t} dt [/tex] (8)

Again,i don't know what to do to it.

Daniel.
 
Last edited:
  • #5
Thx for help, but I don't simplify your answer.

I'm going use the answer (if it possible) in math model.
Numerical answer is suit, but if it in the form:
f(k,p)*numerical_answer

I try to apply the teory residues for a solve.
What do you think about?

P.S. I should note that the root of initial problem is


\int {0} {\inf} { exp(-rk)/r*(1/r+k) }dt

r = sqrt ( p^2 + (vt)^2 )
 
  • #6
without ambiguity:

\int {0} {\inf} { (exp(-rk)/r)*(1/r+k) }dt

r = sqrt ( p^2 + (vt)^2 )


p.s. my calculation is big, that is why I don't insert its.
 
  • #7
anv said:
I have a proplem to analitic calculate this :

(k/p^2)*LaplaceTransform[Sqrt[z^2+2p*z]/(z+p)],z,k]+
(1/p^2)*LaplaceTransform[-Sqrt[z^2+2p*z]/(z+p)^2],z,k]

Im(k)=0, k>0
Im(p)=0, p>0

The Mathematica 5 doesn't calculate this.

Very glad to help.


I'm sorry,but it doesn't work with residues,because the functions doesn't have poles."Im(p)=0, p>0",and the integration is not on entire R,but only on its positive semiaxis.,where the denominator is never zero.

Daniel.
 

1. What is the Laplace Transform and why is it important?

The Laplace Transform is a mathematical tool used to convert a function of time into a function of complex frequency. It is useful in solving differential equations and allows for easier manipulation and analysis of functions. It is important in a variety of fields such as engineering, physics, and mathematics.

2. What does Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0 mean in the context of calculating Laplace Transform?

Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0 indicate that the function being transformed does not have any imaginary components in its coefficient or variable. This simplifies the calculation process and allows for a more straightforward solution.

3. How do you calculate the Laplace Transform with Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0?

To calculate the Laplace Transform with Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0, you can use the standard formula for the Laplace Transform and substitute in the values of k and p as 0. This will eliminate any imaginary terms in the resulting transform.

4. Can the Laplace Transform be used on any function with Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0?

Yes, the Laplace Transform can be used on any function with Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0. However, it may not always be necessary or beneficial to do so. If the function does not involve complex numbers, the Laplace Transform may not provide any significant advantages.

5. Are there any limitations or drawbacks to using the Laplace Transform with Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0?

One limitation of using the Laplace Transform with Im(k)=0 and Im(p)=0 is that it can only be applied to functions that have a finite number of discontinuities. Also, the resulting transform may not always be easily invertible, making it difficult to obtain the original function. Additionally, the Laplace Transform may not be suitable for functions that have rapidly changing values, as it may not accurately capture the behavior of the function.

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