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Notation question

by chemistry1
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chemistry1
#1
Jul9-14, 08:09 PM
P: 106
Hi,

I have a question about : http://imgur.com/RU7PvtJ

I actually understand what I need to do. I need to see if both one sided limits are the same to establish that the limit exists. The only thing which I just find weird is the "since y --> 2^(-) implies y<-2"

Can somebody explain me where this y --> 2^(-) is coming from ??
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micromass
#2
Jul9-14, 08:13 PM
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It is just a notation to denote the left-hand limits. So

[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow a^-} f(x)[/tex]

is the limit of ##f(x)## as ##x\rightarrow a## but ##x<a##.
chemistry1
#3
Jul9-14, 08:23 PM
P: 106
But shouldn't we say : y --> -2^(-) and not y --> 2^(-) ???

micromass
#4
Jul9-14, 08:26 PM
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Notation question

Quote Quote by chemistry1 View Post
But shouldn't we say : y --> -2^(-) and not y --> 2^(-) ???
Yes, you are correct. The book is wrong there (and it is wrong is the same place on the next line too).
chemistry1
#5
Jul9-14, 08:28 PM
P: 106
Quote Quote by micromass View Post
Yes, you are correct. The book is wrong there (and it is wrong is the same place on the next line too).
Yes, I also noticed it. Ok, thank you!


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