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fk378
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This is a general question...
What is the difference between showing that a map is well-defined and that it is injective?
To prove both can't you show that, given a map x, and elements a,b
if x(a)=x(b) we want to show a=b.
What is the difference between showing that a map is well-defined and that it is injective?
To prove both can't you show that, given a map x, and elements a,b
if x(a)=x(b) we want to show a=b.