- #1
Moogie
- 168
- 1
Hi
Why is the lim(h->0) of h = 0?
I'm new to this so I'm probably being thrown by the change in variable? Is it because we assume f is a function of h, f(h) = h which we know is continuous from other proofs elsewhere, which gives
lim(h->0) f(h) = f(0)
lim(h->0) h = 0
thanks
Why is the lim(h->0) of h = 0?
I'm new to this so I'm probably being thrown by the change in variable? Is it because we assume f is a function of h, f(h) = h which we know is continuous from other proofs elsewhere, which gives
lim(h->0) f(h) = f(0)
lim(h->0) h = 0
thanks