- #1
Matuku
- 12
- 0
Whilst following my textbooks advice and "proving to myself that the inertia listed are true" I considered the Moment of Inertia of a hollow sphere by adding up infinitesimally thin rings:
[tex]
dI = y^2 dm
= y^2 \sigma dS
= y^2 \sigma 2\pi y dz
= 2\pi y^3 \sigma dz
[/tex]
This didn't work however as it appears you have to consider the projection of [itex]dS[/itex] as "seen" from the z-axis; that is, [itex]dS = \frac{dz}{sin\theta}[/itex].
I kind of understand this but I was wondering if there is anything similar to consider when treating a solid sphere as infinitesimally thin disks; a "projection of volume"? http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/HBASE/isph.html#sph2 doesn't imply that there is but in that case can someone explain why not?
[tex]
dI = y^2 dm
= y^2 \sigma dS
= y^2 \sigma 2\pi y dz
= 2\pi y^3 \sigma dz
[/tex]
This didn't work however as it appears you have to consider the projection of [itex]dS[/itex] as "seen" from the z-axis; that is, [itex]dS = \frac{dz}{sin\theta}[/itex].
I kind of understand this but I was wondering if there is anything similar to consider when treating a solid sphere as infinitesimally thin disks; a "projection of volume"? http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/HBASE/isph.html#sph2 doesn't imply that there is but in that case can someone explain why not?