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why the wave function

 
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Dec16-12, 10:14 AM   #52
 

why the wave function


Quote by RUTA View Post
Actually, my interpretation is a blockworld approach so there is no MP. We use a path integral where the future boundary conditions are input, so there is no wave function collapse, i.e., one computes the amplitude for an entire process to include outcomes. Accordingly, MP is a faux problem associated with incorrectly trying to understand a spatiotemporal phenomenon in terms of time-evolved entities.
Quote by akhmeteli View Post
So, if I understand you correctly, you do not accept wave function collapse of standard quantum theory. Then we do agree on this point.
Quote by RUTA View Post
You don't have wave function collapse in the path integral approach because the experimental outcome is a boundary condition, i.e., there is nothing being "time evolved," so there is nothing to "collapse." One is thinking spatiotemporally (4D) rather than dynamically ((3+1)D). By assuming 4Dism is the correct fundamental description and that not all 4D situations permit a (3+1)D story, MP and violation of the Bell inequality are no longer "mysterious," i.e., those are just situations where a 4D quantum result doesn't permit a (3+1)D time-evolved story.
I took a quick look at your interpretation. What's important to me, it looks like QFT is just a continuous approximation to a fundamental discrete theory in your interpretation, so you don't seem to consider standard quantum theory a precise theory. That's where we might agree.
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