- #1
AxiomOfChoice
- 533
- 1
Isn't it true that if a function [itex]f(t)[/itex] satisfies [itex]f'(t) > 0[/itex] on some interval, then [itex]f[/itex] is STRICTLY increasing on that interval; i.e., that [itex]s < t[/itex] implies that [itex]f(s) < f(t)[/itex]?