## Inverse function fourier

Hi

Does anyone know if there is a relation between the fourier transform of a function and the fourier transform of the inverse function

in summary
FT[f(x)] ?= FT[f-1(x)]

Thanks!
 Logically they must be related because a 1-1 function uniquely determines its own inverse. Therefore, the Fourier transforms are at least related through this indirect relationship. However, I don't think there is any reasonable formula to relate the two. The Fourier transform does not interact with composition of functions in a simple way.