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Inverse function fourier |
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| Nov9-12, 10:42 AM | #1 |
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Inverse function fourier
Hi
Does anyone know if there is a relation between the fourier transform of a function and the fourier transform of the inverse function in summary FT[f(x)] ?= FT[f-1(x)] Thanks! |
| Nov12-12, 04:11 PM | #2 |
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Logically they must be related because a 1-1 function uniquely determines its own inverse. Therefore, the Fourier transforms are at least related through this indirect relationship. However, I don't think there is any reasonable formula to relate the two. The Fourier transform does not interact with composition of functions in a simple way.
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