- #1
calculus_jy
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The angular momentum operator is given by
[tex]\bold{L}=\bold{r}\times-i\hbar \bold{\nabla}[/tex]How do we compute
[tex]\bold{L}\cdot \bold{L}=(\bold{r}\times-i\hbar \bold{\nabla})\cdot(\bold{r}\times-i\hbar \bold{\nabla})[/tex]? so that we can get a relation of L^2 with the lapacian operator i found this in a lecture note and it gave this as the first line (i might have inserted the factors -ihbar wrong)
[tex]L^2=-\bold{r} \cdot(-i\hbar\bold{\nabla }\times (\bold{r} \times -i\hbar\bold{\nabla })[/tex] ? (is it correct and can you help me proof it)
[tex]\bold{L}=\bold{r}\times-i\hbar \bold{\nabla}[/tex]How do we compute
[tex]\bold{L}\cdot \bold{L}=(\bold{r}\times-i\hbar \bold{\nabla})\cdot(\bold{r}\times-i\hbar \bold{\nabla})[/tex]? so that we can get a relation of L^2 with the lapacian operator i found this in a lecture note and it gave this as the first line (i might have inserted the factors -ihbar wrong)
[tex]L^2=-\bold{r} \cdot(-i\hbar\bold{\nabla }\times (\bold{r} \times -i\hbar\bold{\nabla })[/tex] ? (is it correct and can you help me proof it)
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