Proof Question: Using Mathematical Induction

In summary, for all integers n =>1, the sum of the series from 1 to n+1 of 1/(k(k+1)) is equal to 1-1/(n+1). This can be proven using partial fractions and the induction method
  • #36
Lococard said:
So that is the same as:

[itex]\frac{(n+1)(n+1)}{(n+1)(n+2)}?[/itex]

yes? no?

Yes! :smile:

(You knew that, didn't you?)
Now I am not sure what to do :S

You really don't dig polynomial fractions, do you? :frown:

It's the same as [itex]\frac{(n+1)}{(n+1)}\,\frac{(n+1)}{(n+2)}[/itex] , which is … ? :smile:
 
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  • #37
Im really not sure.

You can cancel the (n+1) / (n+1)


Leaving (n+1) / (n+2)?



Im a little confused as the teacher suggested that i work my way to get 1 - [1 / (n+2)]
 
  • #38
Lococard said:
You can cancel the (n+1) / (n+1)

Leaving (n+1) / (n+2)?

Yes! :smile:
Im a little confused as the teacher suggested that i work my way to get 1 - [1 / (n+2)]

Well, maybe teacher is right …

What is 1 - [1 / (n+2)] ?

Hint: 1 = … ? :smile:
 
  • #39
(n+2) / (n+2) - [1/(n+2)]?

= [(n+2) - 1] / (n+2)?
 
  • #40
Yes!

= … ? :smile:
 
  • #41
… merveilleux … !

Schrodinger's Dog said:
[tex]= \frac{(n+2) - 1} {(n+2)}? = 1-\frac{1}{n+1} \equiv \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{k(k+1)}[/tex]​

erm …
:redface: … êtes-vous sûr …? :redface:
 
  • #42
tiny-tim said:
erm …
:redface: … êtes-vous sûr …? :redface:

Which of those equals the last one, I left the question marks in there for a good reason, writing which of these is correct in latex gets messy, Ie ?=. The point is that one of those = a third, or the summation given at the beginning of the thread with a telescoping series.

Ie you have your answer. Et voila...

Since obviously some people found this confusing I've edited it to clear that up.

I kept putting [itex]\neq[/itex] in then removing it then putting it in again before I decided it looks better with the question marks. :smile:

If you don't believe me ask a mentor if I edited it about 219283927^34839 times. :tongue:EDIT: Actually sod it I might as well delete it, as it only makes sense, if you take on board the post about 1/k(k+1) being equivalent to the LHS. So nm.

I was trying to helpfully point out that what gib7 said was the same as what you eventually end up with, but it came out completely wrong.
 
Last edited:

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