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sammycaps
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So I'm having a little trouble with the part of Van Kampen's theorem my professor presented to us. He called this the easy 1/2 of Van Kampen's theorem.
Theorem (1/2 of Van Kampen's) - Let X,x=A,x U B,x (sets with basepoint x) where A and B are open in X and A[itex]\bigcap[/itex]B is path-connected. Then [itex]\pi[/itex]1(X) is generated by [itex]\pi[/itex]1(A) and [itex]\pi[/itex]1(B).
[itex]\pi[/itex]1(A) and [itex]\pi[/itex]1(B) are not necessarily subsets of [itex]\pi[/itex]1(X), at least in general. So if anyone can enlighten me on exactly what the Professor meant. I would think he just means the embedding of [itex]\pi[/itex]1(A) and [itex]\pi[/itex]1(B) in [itex]\pi[/itex]1(X) but I don't think, at least in general, the homomorphism induced by the inclusion is injective.
Thanks very much.
Theorem (1/2 of Van Kampen's) - Let X,x=A,x U B,x (sets with basepoint x) where A and B are open in X and A[itex]\bigcap[/itex]B is path-connected. Then [itex]\pi[/itex]1(X) is generated by [itex]\pi[/itex]1(A) and [itex]\pi[/itex]1(B).
[itex]\pi[/itex]1(A) and [itex]\pi[/itex]1(B) are not necessarily subsets of [itex]\pi[/itex]1(X), at least in general. So if anyone can enlighten me on exactly what the Professor meant. I would think he just means the embedding of [itex]\pi[/itex]1(A) and [itex]\pi[/itex]1(B) in [itex]\pi[/itex]1(X) but I don't think, at least in general, the homomorphism induced by the inclusion is injective.
Thanks very much.
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