- #1
Genericcoder
- 131
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Why is change in potential energy is defined as
PE1 - PE0 = -W
I mean I could see it for example for gravity if we took PE0 to be zero at ground and we integerated -mgy(y^) we get -mg(y0 - y1) -> -mgh,but is their a proof somewhere where it shows it will be always negative work ?
Thank you.
PE1 - PE0 = -W
I mean I could see it for example for gravity if we took PE0 to be zero at ground and we integerated -mgy(y^) we get -mg(y0 - y1) -> -mgh,but is their a proof somewhere where it shows it will be always negative work ?
Thank you.