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Apr25-06, 01:14 PM
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#145
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Paul Martin is
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Thanks PIT2,
Those studies seem to confirm my assessment that telepathy is difficult and unreliable. But I am delighted to see that qualified scientists are putting effort into trying to understand consciousness related mysteries.
Paul
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Apr25-06, 04:14 PM
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#146
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Dichter is
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Interesting points, Paul. You made me realize how difficult it is to let go of old ideas in order to understand new ones.
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
In my view, an individual is an ordered pair, so to speak. It is the Cartesian pair of body and mind where each component resides in a separate "world". So when we talk about two humans communicating, we have to be clear about which of the four components are involved.
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I have no problem with the Cartesian view, the problem is thinking of a world which cannot be expressed using concepts from our language.
But in order for the bodies to report on that communication here in the physical world, then the bodies must also be involved.
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That is an interesting perspective which never occurred to me.
I have noticed a strange phenomenon when I wake up in the morning; I don't know if it applies to me only, I believe everyone is the same. Many times I wake up thinking exactly the same thought I had when I went to bed, but my mood can be completely different. That led me to think I go through experiences at night (dreams) during which I'm not thinking, but the emotional outcome of those experiences still stay with me. So even though I don't remember the dreams, I'm still affected by them on a subconscious level.
This raises an interesting question for me: what is the relationship between the self and the subconscious mind? Can we become conscious of what is now within the subconscious? If we can, can we describe what we find using ordinary language?
As you suggested with your teen-ager scenario, it may be easier to achieve telepathy if the mind can withdraw from the preoccupation with the body, for example while the body is meditating or sleeping. I suspect that such communication goes on during sleep, but the communication is not encoded into English and not stored in the brain
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If it's not stored in the brain, is it stored at all?
In order to be seen as telepathic communication between humans it would have to be the rover to rover case. If there is communication strictly between the minds, then that would be the JPL scientist to JPL scientist case but it would not be reportable by the rovers (humans).
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Fascinating!
In any case, I think the prospects for eternity are good, especially if the physicalists are wrong.
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I'm not afraid of eternity, I was just trying to point out that those horizontal channels of communication must exist.
There will be a few obstinate daring scientists who will doggedly pursue what they believe to be a new paradigm in spite of being disqualified, shunned, unfunded, or derided. The eventual success of plate tectonic theory, and the eventual acceptance of the bacterial cause for ulcers, are prime examples of how this can happen.
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If history serves as a guide, you are certainly right. Still, I cannot imagine such a turn of events in the near future. A scientific proof of the immaterial nature of consciousness would do as much damage to materialism as evolution theory did to religion; it would shake the foundations of modern society. I am not sure what could possibly follow; I suspect it would mean the end of the war between science and religion, and religion would have won. Which is why I don't think it will happen anytime soon.
I think the overwhelming influence on the public to accepting the scientific position is the undeniable success of science in solving so many real human problems.
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If that is the case, why do we still have fundamentalists around? Fundamentalists are witness to those successes as much as anyone else, yet they seem unmoved by them. It seems to me it's mostly people with post-secondary degrees that care that much about science.
So when we say "I believe", who is the "I" making the claim? Is it the mind or the body?
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I honestly don't know the answer to that question. Certainly the sound of the words "I believe" comes from my mouth. What about knowledge of the words themselves? Does the body know English, or is that in the mind? I'd be inclined to believe language resides in the brain, but in that case what is there to an idea beyond its expression in language?
I take exception to this exception. It sounds too materialistic to me.
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The real problem with all this stuff is to keep our feet on the ground. Forget the propaganda you keep hearing about science, that it is based on empirical methods or peer review or whatever; the thing that really allows people to achieve scientific success is having both feet on the ground. Now that doesn't mean we can't aim as high as possible, only that we should not embark in flights of fancy.
The problem with materialism is that much of it is true. We can't dismiss an explanation just because it is too materialistic, we can only dismiss it if it's not true.
I would say that Seth has taken over Jane's body in order to use it as part of the communication link to report in the physical world some ideas Seth has in the other world. Jane's personality needs to get out of the way in order for this to work
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(I wrote a comment on this, and then deleted it because I realized I was writing out of prejudice. For personal reasons I am a bit scared of this "talking to spirits" thing; I've known quite a few people who have been negatively influenced by those ideas, in one case to the point of bringing unhappiness to a family. No matter how I try, I can't be objective about this)
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Apr25-06, 06:55 PM
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#147
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Paul Martin is
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Posts: 340
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Originally Posted by Dichter
I have noticed a strange phenomenon when I wake up in the morning; I don't know if it applies to me only, I believe everyone is the same. Many times I wake up thinking exactly the same thought I had when I went to bed, but my mood can be completely different.
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Have you thought about this possibility: Could it be that you (the conscious, thinking part of you) are waking up in a different body than the one you were in when you went to sleep? If the brain were loaded up with memories from the previous occupant, you would wake up thinking and feeling that there was continuity of identity across the interval of sleep. That could be an illusion. The different mood you described could be explained by different mood-inducing hormones that might have been released during the night, or it could be that your mood is different because you are a different driver from the one on the previous day. I think that there is no way to prove that you are the same person (i.e. conscious entity) that you were yesterday. When I wake up, I typically feel a few milliseconds of disorientation as I put together who and where I am. Sometimes, if I am traveling, this even takes seconds. I think the discontinuous nature of consciousness is a feature that will prove to play a prominent role in the true explanation of consciousness when we finally do figure it out.
Originally Posted by Dichter
This raises an interesting question for me: what is the relationship between the self and the subconscious mind? Can we become conscious of what is now within the subconscious? If we can, can we describe what we find using ordinary language?
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Ahead of these questions is the interesting question of what, if anything, is the subconscious mind in the first place. Since I don't believe the conscious mind is seated in the brain, it doesn't seem likely that the subconscious mind is either. I suspect that what we call 'the subconscious mind' is a collection of disparate functions some of which reside in the brain and others of which are outside the brain with the conscious mind. Functions like the regulation of endocrine secretions or the autonomic nervous system I would expect to be located in the brain similar to the on-board computers in a Mars rover. These functions may or may not be attributed to the subconscious mind depending on personal preference -- or maybe there is an official position taken by psychologists. I just don't know. But the subconscious function of providing AHA! types of insight I suspect take place outside the brain. Those, of course are just guesses.
In any case, from my point of view, there is only one mind in existence, so there is only one self. That self transcends and subsumes all the physical bodies. While this mind is driving a body, it is obviously limited in its available knowledge. In this condition it is convenient to recognize the mind/body pair as an individual, and it is also convenient to ascribe selfhood to the pair. And so the answers to your questions about the relationships depend on exactly what you mean by 'self', 'mind', 'subconscious', 'consciousness', 'we', etc. But I have been through this before. I think we can describe these relationships using ordinary language as long as we are clear about the connotations of the words I just listed.
Originally Posted by Dichter
If it's not stored in the brain, is it stored at all?
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I think so. I think that most memory, in particular all long-term memory, resides outside the brain (and outside the physical universe). This would explain why the recollection of an entire lifetime of experiences can be immediately available during an NDE. It would also explain why scientists have not been able to figure out where in the brain memories are stored.
Originally Posted by Dichter
If history serves as a guide, you are certainly right. Still, I cannot imagine such a turn of events in the near future. A scientific proof of the immaterial nature of consciousness would do as much damage to materialism as evolution theory did to religion; it would shake the foundations of modern society. I am not sure what could possibly follow; I suspect it would mean the end of the war between science and religion, and religion would have won. Which is why I don't think it will happen anytime soon.
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If I were a betting man, I would bet on the other horse. I think a true breakthrough in the understanding of consciousness will happen in the near future. Surprising things happen quickly these days.
Yes, it will shake the foundations of modern society, but those foundations have been shaken before. We will survive. In my opinion, much more damage will be done to religious foundations than will be done to scientific foundations. The scientists will only have to admit that there is something going on in addition to what they have already discovered and described. That won't be any more of a problem than dark matter or dark energy. The religionists, on the other hand, will find out that their cherished notions of an infinite, almighty God who takes their side in war is in fact a Wizard of Oz with powers that are limited and finite. In fact, to paraphrase Pogo, they will find out that "He is us". I think that is good news though. The acceptance of the new view will once and for all pull the rug out from under the fundamentalists and hopefully their malevolent Jihads and crusades will cease.
Originally Posted by Dichter
If that is the case, why do we still have fundamentalists around? Fundamentalists are witness to those successes as much as anyone else, yet they seem unmoved by them.
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Their heads are in the sand and their days are numbered.
Originally Posted by Dichter
I'd be inclined to believe language resides in the brain, but in that case what is there to an idea beyond its expression in language?
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I believe part of the language function resides in the brain. I think Chomsky identified those functions. But I think all cognition, awareness, understanding, and other aspects of consciousness, reside outside the brain. I think there is a great part of an idea that is beyond its expression in language. In fact I think all language expressions are inadequate to fully capture any idea. Take the word 'triangle' for example. The word expresses an idea which we can easily apprehend, but think of the paragraphs of language it would take to describe one exactly with their perfectly straight sides, made of ultra-thin yet not vanishing lines, meeting precisely to form the super sharp corners, etc., etc., etc. In the big scheme of things, I think that language, as powerful as it is, is very crude and limited in its potential. Ideas make language pale by comparison.
Originally Posted by Dichter
The real problem with all this stuff is to keep our feet on the ground.
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You may have noticed that I have that problem. My flights of fancy try to take me all sorts of places. My strategy though, is to tie the lead weights of sensibility to my ankles to try to keep my feet on the ground. For any wild idea I consider, I always accept it only if it makes sense to me. I think reality makes sense, so I am disinclined to accept any explanation for anything that doesn't make sense. My ideas may not make sense to others, but they all make sense to me. I am always eager to hear from anyone who thinks that my ideas don't make sense. If, after discussing an idea, someone can show me the nonsense in my ideas, I will abandon the idea immediately with no regrets. This is an open invitation to anyone reading this. Please tell me where and why you think my ideas don't make sense.
Originally Posted by Dichter
For personal reasons I am a bit scared of this "talking to spirits" thing
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Me too.
Paul
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Apr27-06, 10:38 AM
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#148
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Dichter is
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Originally Posted by Paul Martin
Have you thought about this possibility: Could it be that you (the conscious, thinking part of you) are waking up in a different body than the one you were in when you went to sleep?
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I must confess that idea is way too advanced for me. You probably mean something completely different from what I understood so it's hard for me to comment.
But I'd like to propose a little twist to this dialogue. Since the central issue is the nature of the mind, whether it is physical or not, I think there must be a better approach than mere speculation. I also think that if the mind is not physical, then there's nothing science can do about it. If the mind is really non-physical, science will be forever constrained to postulate unknown physical processes as the cause of physical phenomena that are not well understood. Such already is the situation with all fields associated with biology.
If the mind is non-physical, I think it's not the scientists who will prove that but the mathematicians. The other alternatives are philosophers and mystics, but the former are too sloppy in their definitions and the latter are not trustworthy. Here is how I see the non-physical nature of the mind could be approached from a mathematical perspective:
We'd have to start with a clear mathematical definition of "physical". I'm not a mathematician, but as far as I know such a definition does not yet exist. I don't think it should be difficult though; we do not necessarily have to know exactly what "physical" is, all we have to do is come up with a definition that is consistent with everything we know.
I would venture that a mathematical definition of "physical" would imply that nothing physical can have infinite or zero magnitude. Then the next step would be to assert that one or more features of consciousness cannot be physical by that definition. Now the interesting thing is that mathematics is a feature of consciousness, and mathematics has a particularly interesting feature: it does not happen in time. For instance, when expressed physically in a computer program the statement "a = b + 1" takes a finite amount of time to execute, but in mathematics itself "a = b + 1" is instantaneous - zero time to execute, infinite processing speed.
Of course we are capable of doing mathematics, but we don't know if we can do it in infinite speed. Certainly expressing the result of mental computation takes time, but that is to be expected. The real problem is, exactly where is "a = b + 1" instantaneous? From a platonist perspective the answer would be "in abstract reality". If we can mathematically prove that platonism is the best description of reality (and the success of physics does seem to point that way), then we would have basically come up with a proof that the mind is not physical.
Well, as I said philosophers are sloppy, and amateur ones much more so. I just wanted to point out that the solution to the problem we are discussing may be best achieved by mathematics rather than science.
I'd be interested in your thoughts.
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Apr27-06, 12:01 PM
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#149
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Paul Martin is
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Originally Posted by Dichter
If the mind is non-physical, I think it's not the scientists who will prove that but the mathematicians. The other alternatives are philosophers and mystics, but the former are too sloppy in their definitions and the latter are not trustworthy.
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I agree completely! Although in fairness we should probably consider mathematicians to be scientists also. After all, many if not most modern scientific breakthroughs, at least in physics, are achieved via mathematics as opposed to observation.
Originally Posted by Dichter
Here is how I see the non-physical nature of the mind could be approached from a mathematical perspective:
We'd have to start with a clear mathematical definition of "physical".
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Again, I agree completely!
Originally Posted by Dichter
I'm not a mathematician, but as far as I know such a definition does not yet exist.
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I'm not a mathematician either, but I am aware of an attempt to rigorously define 'reality'. For many people, reality = physical so this definition might suffice for those people. The definition is that 'reality' is defined to be an arbitrary set of numbers. This definition would work equally well for 'physical' and the same conclusions could be drawn. At this point, I hesitate to go further and describe those conclusions for reasons that will become clear at the end of this post. I would like for people to continue reading.
Originally Posted by Dichter
I don't think it should be difficult though; we do not necessarily have to know exactly what "physical" is, all we have to do is come up with a definition that is consistent with everything we know.
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Yes! I agree completely, although the degree of difficulty is relative.
Originally Posted by Dichter
I would venture that a mathematical definition of "physical" would imply that nothing physical can have infinite or zero magnitude.
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I agree. But....the guy I will tell you about later who defined 'reality' says that this is not a necessary condition and it isn't necessarily implied by the definition. (I disagree with him and most mathematicians on the fundamental issue here, but that is another story we could get into, or just check out http://physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=49732)
Originally Posted by Dichter
Then the next step would be to assert that one or more features of consciousness cannot be physical by that definition.
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That assertion would have to be proved. I don't think it is obviously implicit in the definition. Nevertheless, Roger Penrose attempted to prove essentially the same assertion in his "The Emperor's New Mind". In my amateur opinion, he made a convincing case.
Originally Posted by Dichter
Now the interesting thing is that mathematics is a feature of consciousness
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An understatement! I think more attention should be paid to this statement by philosophers, logicians, mathematicians, and biologists alike. I think progress could be made simply by examining the implications of this one statement.
Originally Posted by Dichter
and mathematics has a particularly interesting feature: it does not happen in time.
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Are you sure? How exactly does mathematics "happen"? Here again, I think the examination of this question could open up some interesting possibilities.
Originally Posted by Dichter
The real problem is, exactly where is "a = b + 1" instantaneous? From a platonist perspective the answer would be "in abstract reality". If we can mathematically prove that platonism is the best description of reality (and the success of physics does seem to point that way), then we would have basically come up with a proof that the mind is not physical.
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I agree with the gist of this approach and what it might demonstrate, but as I'm sure you would agree, it is a little loose.
Originally Posted by Dichter
Well, as I said philosophers are sloppy, and amateur ones much more so. I just wanted to point out that the solution to the problem we are discussing may be best achieved by mathematics rather than science.
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I agree completely.
Originally Posted by Dichter
I'd be interested in your thoughts.
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I'm so glad you asked. Readers, brace yourselves.
First (don't worry; this is not so controversial), someone at PF introduced me to George Spencer-Brown's attempt to do essentially what you are suggesting. He wrote "The Laws of Form" which develop a mathematical model of how the universe could have developed from nothing. I haven't learned enough about his work to comment any further than this.
Now, for the controversial part. The guy I mentioned who developed rigorous conclusions from the definition of reality being an arbitrary set of numbers is Dick Stafford. He regularly posts here and is just as regularly misunderstood. My apologies, Dick, but the way you come across in your communication here, as is so frequently and eloquently expressed by Les and others, is completely inconsistent with your actual personality. Being a personal friend of his and having spend many hundreds of hours under his tutelage trying to understand his paper ( http://home.jam.rr.com/dicksfiles/reality/Contents.htm ) I can speak with some authority. He is a warm, caring, nice, very smart, but very eccentric guy.
Now, about his paper. With my background being what it is, I was able with great difficulty to follow the development in his Chapter 1 to the point I am convinced that he has discovered a new theorem of mathematics. The theorem roughly says that consistency implies the laws of physics. That is, if you have an arbitrary set of numbers, then there are constraints on the possibilities for specific combinations of subsets of this set. Dick expressed those constraints in a differential equation which I consider to be a theorem. The equation is derived in Chapter 1 strictly from the axioms of analysis. The interesting thing, though, which is presented in his next four chapters, and which I am not competent to follow in detail, is that the known laws of physics are all solutions to Dick's fundamental equation.
The way I see this, in the context of your proposal Dichter, is that Dick has discovered a mathematical way to prove that the behavior of any universe which can be described as a set of numbers can be modeled by his differential equation and therefore must obey the laws of physics. This means that the universe, or at least its phenomenal behavior, could have arisen by something producing a set of numbers. Since numbers are mental concepts, that "something" must be a conscious mind, just as Gregory Bateson suspected. And if we posit that a mental capability was primordial, all that is required is that it developed and increased in complexity and knowledge to the point where it could imagine complex sets of numbers and apply algorithms to operate on those sets. This is what you referred to as mathematics "happening". It seems to me, to answer one of your earlier questions, that mathematics (really computation) can "happen" in one of two ways: either in a conscious mind, or in some machine designed specifically to process algorithms. In the actual production of our physical universe, I suspect that a combination of both types are at work. But now I'm idly speculating again.
Those are my thoughts.
Paul
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Apr28-06, 11:29 AM
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#150
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Doctordick is
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Originally Posted by Paul Martin
With my background being what it is, …
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Now didn’t you get a masters in mathematics some forty years ago?
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
I am convinced that he has discovered a new theorem of mathematics.
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Paul, with that theorem idea of yours in mind, I composed a presentation which I last updated a short time ago. If you would look at that and tell me what is difficult to understand, we might be able to create something clear. You can find it at A Universal Analytical Model of Explanation Itself”.
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
The theorem roughly says that consistency implies the laws of physics.
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I personally wouldn’t put it that way. What it says is that the basic fundamental elements of any consistent explanation of anything obey the laws of physics. Put another way, that implies any consistent explanation of anything must be built as a consequence of the behavior of fundamental physical entities. In essence I proved that the answer to the question “Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics?” is definitively “yes”.
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
Since numbers are mental concepts, that "something" must be a conscious mind, just as Gregory Bateson suspected. And if we posit that a mental capability was primordial, … that a combination of both types are at work.
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Why not just start with the simple fact that you are aware you can think and call it a Great Original Dilemma. That perhaps the conscious aspect (what one might call the soul) is the primary element of reality (that Great Original Dilemma) and that what everyone calls real is a fabrication of the soul designed to explain the experiences of the soul? Paul, does that sort of fit your picture of the situation? Grapple with that for a while and give me your conclusions.
Have fun -- Dick
"The simplest and most necessary truths are the very last to be believed."
by Anonymous
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Apr28-06, 02:32 PM
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Last edited by Paul Martin; Apr28-06 at 02:55 PM..
#151
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Paul Martin is
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Originally Posted by Doctordick
Now didn’t you get a masters in mathematics some forty years ago?
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Yes, but as you are well aware, many of the skills have atrophied since then.
Originally Posted by Doctordick
Paul, with that theorem idea of yours in mind, I composed a presentation which I last updated a short time ago. If you would look at that and tell me what is difficult to understand, we might be able to create something clear.
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Yes, I still owe you that. Be patient.
Originally Posted by Doctordick
I personally wouldn’t put it that way.
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Your way is better. I had the choice of being vague or wrong. I chose vague. When I said, "consistency implies the laws of physics", I conveniently and deliberately didn't specify what it is that must be consistent. You cleared this up by saying that it is the explanations which must be consistent. This relates to a recent comment by Dichter in another thread ( http://physicsforums.com/showthread....280#post968280 )that points out that truth has no meaning except in a linguistic context. That is, the only things that can be true or false are statements in some language. The same is true for consistency. Language statements can be consistent or inconsistent, but physical things can't be, unless you choose to call something like quantum superposition inconsistent.
Thank you for providing an improved way of stating your theorem (as I hoped you would).
Originally Posted by Doctordick
Why not just start with the simple fact that you are aware you can think and call it a Great Original Dilemma. That perhaps the conscious aspect (what one might call the soul) is the primary element of reality (that Great Original Dilemma) and that what everyone calls real is a fabrication of the soul designed to explain the experiences of the soul? Paul, does that sort of fit your picture of the situation? Grapple with that for a while and give me your conclusions.
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I did and it was an easy "grapple". That is exactly the approach I have made in coming up with my personal philosophy except the words I use are slightly different.
Instead of "the simple fact that you are aware you can think" I call it "the ability to know". It's exactly the same thing. Mine has the advantage, though, of not using the term 'you', which you use without definition. If we agree that 'you' is a synonym for 'the ability to know', then we are consistent in our language usage, and we agree.
Instead of calling 'the conscious aspect', or the 'soul', by the name 'Great Original Dilemma', with its provocative acronym, I have chosen to use the term 'Primordial Consciousness', or just 'PC'. But in my view, all these terms are synonyms and again our views seem to be consistent.
Instead of referring to physical reality as "a fabrication of the soul designed to explain the experiences of the soul" I have paraphrased Berkeley by saying that physical reality is nothing but ideas in the mind of PC. Here again, except for the words, I think our concepts are completely consistent.
So, yes, that not only sort of fits my picture of the situation, it describes it almost exactly. It seems as if we are even describing the same portion of the elephant, or as you promised me long ago, I think we have a glimpse of the entire elephant.
Thanks for your comments, Dick. I am definitely having fun now.
Paul
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Apr28-06, 06:24 PM
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#152
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Les Sleeth is
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Originally Posted by Paul Martin
. . . Dick has discovered a mathematical way to prove that the behavior of any universe which can be described as a set of numbers can be modeled by his differential equation and therefore must obey the laws of physics. This means that the universe, or at least its phenomenal behavior, could have arisen by something producing a set of numbers. . . .
. . . Instead of "the simple fact that you are aware you can think" I call it "the ability to know". It's exactly the same thing.
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You guys seem to agree that truth can be had by reason alone, but that is disputed by the fact that philosophers had it that way for centuries and produced virtually no knowledge. As William James so simply put it, “To know is one thing, and to know for certain that we know is another.”
Because you can make sense logically or mathematically doesn't mean anything more than the logic and math have been applied according to their own internal rules; it doesn't mean that reality conforms to your perfect logic or math. So what you in an earlier post call "proof" can hardly be that unless you are willing to stipulate that all you mean is your math has obeyed all math rules. It proves absolutely nothing about reality.
Rationalism should be dead and buried by now, but unfortunately its ghost lingers on. The first real progress in philosophy since the Greeks was the empiricists IMO, and that was due to recognizing that making sense doesn't necessarily mean what's been reason will conform to reality. The only way to know if what we've reasoned corresponds to reality is to set up situation where we can observe what's been hypothesized. As Locke said in his An Essay Concerning Human Understanding, “Whence has it all the materials of reason and knowledge? To this I answer, in one word, from experience. In that all our knowledge is founded, and from that it ultimately derives itself.”
If you were to say that all you and Dick are doing is theoretical modeling, then I would be fine with that. It can be fun to follow a model and see how it pans out. But you used the word "proof," and in discussions with Dick in the past he clearly indicated he thinks he "knows" by reason alone, so it seems now you are agreeing with him (if I've misinterpreted your meaning, I apologize). Right there the principles of science have been violated. For science, there is no proof without observation, pure and simple, so I don't know why you or anyone with a Ph.D in science would think otherwise.
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Apr28-06, 08:17 PM
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#153
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Paul Martin is
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Hi Les,
Thank you for your comments. I am always impressed by what you write. I am dismayed, however, at the difficulty Dick and I have in expressing our views. I really don't think that the three of us are all that far off in our world views. The big differences are in our respective unique areas of expertise, not that I have one, but you guys both do. I think our only real disagreements are semantic.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
You guys seem to agree that truth can be had by reason alone
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If it seems that way, then there has definitely been a misunderstanding. I don't believe that much, if any, truth can be had by any means. The only statement I accept as truue is the statement, "Thought happens". Everything else is subject to interpretation and doubt. But there is a notion of mathematical truth, which should more rightly be called consistency. A "true" statement in mathematics is simply one that has been logically demonstrated to be consistent with the accepted body of other mathematical statements. I don't believe that any statement about reality can be proved to be true unless the statement is a tautology, in which case it is merely a statement about labeling and it doesn't say anything about reality.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
So what you in an earlier post call "proof" can hardly be that unless you are willing to stipulate that all you mean is your math has obeyed all math rules. It proves absolutely nothing about reality.
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I agree completely. That is all I mean. I insist on the stipulation you mention.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
The first real progress in philosophy since the Greeks was the empiricists IMO, and that was due to recognizing that making sense doesn't necessarily mean what's been reason will conform to reality.
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I am less of a philosopher than you so I will accept what you say here. From a mathematical viewpoint, however, the first real progress since Euclid was the recognition that there is no distinction between axioms and postulates. That is, there is no "axiom" that is self-evidently true. They are all arbitrary and have nothing to do with reality. I think that recognition is equivalent to the progress of the empiricists, so I think we agree here.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
The only way to know if what we've reasoned corresponds to reality is to set up situation where we can observe what's been hypothesized.
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I agree completely. And, I would add that if we did set up such a situation and observed that nature conforms to our hypothesis, we still can't say that what we've reasoned is true. Instead, all we can say is what you said: we can say what we've reasoned corresponds to reality. Mathematically, this means that the best we can get is an isomorphism between the model and reality. Or, linguistically, all we have is a metaphor that says that reality is something like our model. In any case, all we really have is some agreement to accept some language statements, which we might have the arrogance to call "laws", or "truth". But we really can't say that we know anything about reality.
Nonetheless, we shouldn't downplay those language statements too much. After all, they allow us to function as human beings much more effectively. There is a poem by the mathematician C.R. Wylie, Jr. that I like in one of my college textbooks:
"PARADOX
Not truth, nor certainty. These I foreswore
In my novitiate, as young men called
To holy orders must abjure the world.
'If. . . . , then . . . ,' this only I assert;
And my successes are but pretty chains
Linking twin doubts, for it is vain to ask
If what I postulate be justified,
Or what I prove possess the stamp of fact.
"Yet bridges stand, and men no longer crawl
In two dimensions. And such triumphs stem
In no small measure from the power this game,
Played with the thrice-attenuated shades
Of things, has over their originals.
How frail the wand, but how profound the spell!"
("Advanced Calculus", by Louis Brand, 1955, Wiley, New York, p. xiv)
It is the "Yet bridges stand..." part that I think we should not overlook. Even though we can't say anything about ultimate reality, we can sure come to a useful understanding of phenomena.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
If you were to say that all you and Dick are doing is theoretical modeling, then I would be fine with that.
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Speaking for myself, and I think for Dick as well, that is all I claim we are doing. I think we have no substantial disagreement.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
It can be fun to follow a model and see how it pans out.
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I agree. And for those who come up with something really useful, like F=ma, it can also profoundly change human society.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
But you used the word "proof," and in discussions with Dick in the past he clearly indicated he thinks he "knows" by reason alone, so it seems now you are agreeing with him (if I've misinterpreted your meaning, I apologize).
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Since I typically don't use the word "proof", I think you are referring to Dick's statement, "In essence I proved that the answer to the question “Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics?” is definitively “yes”. " I'll give you my opinion of what he meant. He claims to have proved that the answer "yes" is consistent with the question in the strict mathematical sense. Nothing more. Physics is ultimately a set of language statements that give a method of predicting the outcome of physical experiments. Dick's assertion is that he can demonstrate a mathematical proof, in the sense of Euclid, that all statements that provide a successful methodology for predicting physical phenomena can be derived from his differential equation, which I say is a theorem. Yes, it is an outlandish claim, but as yet no one has shown it to be false.
Now, what Dick "knows" by reason alone, is that his differential equation is a tautology. That is, it is simply another way of stating the axioms of mathematics and their implications.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
Right there the principles of science have been violated. For science, there is no proof without observation, pure and simple, so I don't know why you or anyone with a Ph.D in science would think otherwise.
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I don't think otherwise, and I don't think Dick does either. That kind of proof is different from the mathematical proof we have been talking about. And scientists themselves rarely if ever claim that they have proved anything. Instead they only claim to have produced evidence that tends to support an hypothesis.
Now, having said all that, I am really not happy with my response. The problem is that language is just not suitable to express what I want to say. And I think that goes for all of us, particularly for Dick (no offense Dick, but you know that to be "true"). Let me try to express myself another way.
I think the three of us are a microcosm of humanity and that the difficulties we are having in communication are typical. I think the "blind man and the elephant" parable really describes our situation. We are looking at the same thing, we see different parts of it, and we have a hard time expressing to those who haven't seen our part what we have seen. You know you can't adequately describe to us what you experience in meditation -- unless we become competent at it; Dick knows that he can't adequately describe to us what he has discovered mathematically -- unless we become competent at it; I know that I can't adequately describe the goofy crackpot ideas I have come up with without using up so many words that my readers fall asleep. I think both of you have serious and important information that could help extend our understanding of reality. I think that both of your ideas, as best as I can understand them, support and help make sense of my goofy crackpot ideas. This may send a shudder down your spine, but really, I think we are all helping each other see the whole elephant.
Now, I may be getting too close to the deep end, so I'll stop for dinner.
It's good talking to you, Les.
Paul
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Apr28-06, 09:39 PM
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#154
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Rade is
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Originally Posted by Doctordick
...Why not just start with the simple fact that you are aware you can think and call it a Great Original Dilemma. That perhaps the conscious aspect (what one might call the soul) is the primary element of reality (that Great Original Dilemma) and that what everyone calls real is a fabrication of the soul designed to explain the experiences of the soul?
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Are we starting with the simple fact of "you" or "aware" in this argument of yours ?
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Apr28-06, 11:52 PM
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#155
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Doctordick is
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Posts: 639
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Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
You guys seem to agree that truth can be had by reason alone, but that is disputed by the fact that philosophers had it that way for centuries and produced virtually no knowledge.
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And that is exactly the reason no one will take the trouble to look down the rabbit hole I have discovered. It is all logic and has to be examined very carefully; something few people are willing to do, particularly if they think the conclusions are ridiculus.
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
'If. . . . , then . . . ,' this only I assert;
And my successes are but pretty chains
Linking twin doubts, for it is vain to ask
If what I postulate be justified,
Or what I prove possess the stamp of fact.
... by Louis Brand
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Is an exact statement of what I have done. The proof is a true statement about reality only if the ellipses following that “If” constitute a true statement about reality. If indeed that is the case, then the statement represented by the ellipses following the “then” will also constitute a true statement about reality. And, as he says, the “successes are but pretty chains Linking twin doubts, for it is vain to ask if what I postulate be justified”. The critical issue in my “proof” is that the first set of ellipses stand for the set C, the information upon which the explanation is based. I go to great pains to insure that no constraints whatsoever are placed upon that set: i.e., C can be absolutely anything. This results in the astounding statement: “If (what is being explained is anything) then (an interpretation of the explanation exists which must be a solution to my equation).
It follows that, if it is true that you are trying to present an internally consistent explaination of something, then it is true that there exists an interpretation of your explanation which satisfies my equation. That makes that equation a pretty fundamental statement. And it is a constraint on your explanation, not a constraint on reality. That is a very profound result with deep and far reaching consequences.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
As William James so simply put it, “To know is one thing, and to know for certain that we know is another.”
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Yes it very much is!
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
It proves absolutely nothing about reality.
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I agree with you absolutely! And, since all of modern physics can be deduced from my equation, it points out that modern physics proves absolutely nothing about reality. What I have proved is that “Physics” is essentially a bookkeeping system to keep track of the statistical nature of your experiences and provide a prediction of the future consistent with those experiences. Actually, a rather simple proposition.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
If you were to say that all you and Dick are doing is theoretical modeling, then I would be fine with that.
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That is what everyone thinks because they believe that the fact that the philosophers who approached from that direction for centuries failed consistently is a proof that it cannot be done. For how many centuries did educated scholars believe that man could not fly?
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
It can be fun to follow a model and see how it pans out.
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Apparently everyone who moves to take me seriously begins by trying to follow the model but, in doing so, they miss the entire import. My model is almost entirely abstract. It is a model of any explanation, not a model of what the explanation explains.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
For science, there is no proof without observation, pure and simple, so I don't know why you or anyone with a Ph.D in science would think otherwise.
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Now there you are totally wrong. Science is full of proofs of the kind, “If … then …”. Without understanding logic, a career in science would be unthinkable.
Originally Posted by Rade
Are we starting with the simple fact of "you" or "aware" in this argument of yours ? 
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I feel English is too vague a means of communicating to consider that an issue. It’s all in your interpretation.
Have fun -- Dick
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Apr29-06, 01:54 AM
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Last edited by Les Sleeth; Apr29-06 at 01:57 AM..
#156
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Les Sleeth is
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Posts: 2,189
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Originally Posted by Paul Martin
I don't think otherwise, and I don't think Dick does either. That kind of proof is different from the mathematical proof we have been talking about. And scientists themselves rarely if ever claim that they have proved anything. Instead they only claim to have produced evidence that tends to support an hypothesis.
Originally Posted by Doctordick
The proof is a true statement about reality only if the ellipses following that “If” constitute a true statement about reality. If indeed that is the case, then the statement represented by the ellipses following the “then” will also constitute a true statement about reality. And, as he says, the “successes are but pretty chains Linking twin doubts, for it is vain to ask if what I postulate be justified”.
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I like your answer Paul, but Doctordick seems ambiguous. Is it strictly a mathemathmatical proof without claims that reality must conform? In his response I quoted it seems he believes reality necessarily must conform to pure logic if one's "then" statement is correctly linked logically to an observed "if" statement. That is rationalism, not science.
Because logic and math are used in science doesn't mean they can ever be allowed to constitute the whole of a scientific proof. So I still am of the opinion that while you seem clear about the difference between a scientific and math/logic proof, Doctordick doesn't seem to want to make a clear distinction between the two.
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Apr29-06, 09:55 AM
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#157
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Paul Martin is
Offline:
Posts: 340
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Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
Doctordick seems ambiguous
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Yes, it's a common problem of his (as it is for most of the rest of us).
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
Is it strictly a mathemathmatical proof without claims that reality must conform?
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Yes. In my struggle to understand what Dick has discovered, he continually admonished me any time I would infer anything about reality from his work. What has slowly become clear to me after all these years is that his result makes claims only about the relationship between explanations and reality. No claims are made about reality itself. The claim is that if a particular consistent explanation happens to conform to reality (incidentally, we have no way of knowing whether or not it does), then there exists an interpretation of that explanation which satisfies his equation and thus obeys the laws of physics.
I think the ambiguity stems from the two different connotations of 'proof' which we have discussed. I think the three of us are very close to an understanding on this issue.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
In his response I quoted it seems he believes reality necessarily must conform to pure logic if one's "then" statement is correctly linked logically to an observed "if" statement. That is rationalism, not science.
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I think you have nailed the difficulty here. If, by 'rationalism' you mean 'mathematics', then yes, Dicks development is rationalism and not science. But just as the Pythagorean Theorem is rationalism (mathematics) it nonetheless is useful in developing the predictive theories of science. Whether or not reality conforms to the Euclidean metric, which is the necessary and sufficient condition for the Pythagorean Theorem to hold, is still open to debate among scientists.
Your statement above, about what seems to be Dick's belief, needs some careful parsing. As I pointed out, it is not reality that must conform; it is that a consistent explanation must conform. And, the conformance is not to "pure logic" but in some sort of analogic or isomorphic way there must be a conformance between the explanation and something real, about which we know nothing.
I think the difference, between Dick's intent and your interpretation of it, is in the things that are linked by the "if" and the "then". In science, both of those things are observations. In Dick's theorem, neither of them is.
Instead, in Dick's Theorem the "if" is a statement about the consistency of some explanation, and the "then" is the assertion that a particular way of interpreting that explanation must exist, viz. one which obeys the laws of physics. No claim of anything about reality is express, and it is only implied if the "explanation" is claimed to have something to do with reality, and such claim does not bear on Dick's result.
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
Because logic and math are used in science doesn't mean they can ever be allowed to constitute the whole of a scientific proof.
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I agree completely! And I'm sure Dick does too. The whole idea of a scientific "proof" is in the observation of a physical demonstration. Dick's result is pure mathematics (which is why I insist on calling it a theorem) and it applies to science in the same way as any other theorem. None constitutes "the whole of a scientific proof".
Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
So I still am of the opinion that while you seem clear about the difference between a scientific and math/logic proof, Doctordick doesn't seem to want to make a clear distinction between the two.
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I think he does. But if not, I'll let him speak for himself.
This is a very happy day for me, Les, and I have you to thank. I have been dismayed for years at how Dick's development has been misunderstood on these forums and at the difficulty he has had in clearing up the confusion. My work with him has been clouded with the same difficulty, although it has been easier to deal with since there are only the two of us involved, and we have had the opportunity to sit down and talk face to face.
In spite of this advantage, Dick has always maintained that I still don't get it. We have worked specifically on trying to get me to understand what I was missing and we failed. I have a proposed additional section of my website intended to be devoted to a plain English exposition of Dick's result that would finally make clear what it claims, and as yet it is unfinished and unsatisfactory.
But in your recent conversations with Dick, which at times had me wincing, and in this present exchange, it seems to me that it has finally dawned on me what Dick's Theorem actually says. Without these conversations, I may not ever have gotten it. I may be jumping the gun here, and Dick might very well say that I still don't get it, but if so, I still think I have drawn closer. We'll see.
In any case, thank you for your insight, energy, articulation, and persistence.
Paul
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Apr29-06, 10:06 AM
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#158
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Paul Martin is
Offline:
Posts: 340
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Originally Posted by Rade
Are we starting with the simple fact of "you" or "aware" in this argument of yours ?
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I am very interested in knowing what you see as the difference between "you" and "aware". Are you something different than the awareness that seems to be riding around in your body? If so, what exactly is the difference?
Paul
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Apr29-06, 10:54 AM
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#159
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Dichter is
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Originally Posted by Les Sleeth
You guys seem to agree that truth can be had by reason alone, but that is disputed by the fact that philosophers had it that way for centuries and produced virtually no knowledge.
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That sounds like a strange argument to me. Since when professional incompetence is evidence that a job cannot be done?
If you want to gain knowledge by reason alone, forget philosophers, call in the mathematicians. Sure, mathematicians don't talk about juicy stuff, but at least they make a lot of sense and the truths they have found seem indisputable.
As William James so simply put it, “To know is one thing, and to know for certain that we know is another.”
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I wonder if William James had any doubts about two plus two being four.
Because you can make sense logically or mathematically doesn't mean anything more than the logic and math have been applied according to their own internal rules; it doesn't mean that reality conforms to your perfect logic or math.
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Reality can perfectly conform to logic if you allow yourself the freedom to conceive of things that are supposed to exist but cannot be directly perceived or measured (things like fields and forces, for instance). Since those things are products of our imagination, they can do whatever it takes to make reality conform to our logical explanations of it. (did I just read a post where someone mentioned phlogistons?)
On the other hand, if you don't have the freedom to give real existence to products of our imagination, then I suspect even "reality" would vanish. As far as I can tell, the notion of a reality underlying our experiences is just a product of our imagination, like fields and forces. And the same can be said for consciousness. I think the only thing we know exists for sure is experience; the existence of anything causing or being caused by experience seems to lack any solid evidence.
(I take it this is equivalent to Paul's "thought happens" being the only absolute truth)
For science, there is no proof without observation, pure and simple, so I don't know why you or anyone with a Ph.D in science would think otherwise.
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So when was the last time someone observed gravity? I have only seen things falling, I have never seen something causing things to fall.
It does seem to me people with Ph.D in science do believe in proofs without observation.
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Apr29-06, 11:01 AM
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#160
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Les Sleeth is
Offline:
Posts: 2,189
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Originally Posted by Paul Martin
If, by 'rationalism' you mean 'mathematics', then yes, Dicks development is rationalism and not science.
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I mean any sort of reasoning about reality without actually attempting to observe what has been reasoned; it can be mathematical reasoning or logical reasoning.
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
But just as the Pythagorean Theorem is rationalism (mathematics) it nonetheless is useful in developing the predictive theories of science.
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Of course! I have no doubts about the usefulness of rational processes in helping us discover the nature of reality. In my own view, I see my reason helping me know where to look for confirming experience, or for experiences that give me the knowledge I am seeking. It's just that I never believe I "know" until I have experienced it.
It seems from Godel's first incompleteness theorem that the math side of things has come to the same conclusion. Consider this explanation from the Wikipedia:
"For any consistent formal theory that proves basic arithmetical truths, it is possible to construct an arithmetical statement that is true 1 but not provable in the theory. That is, any consistent theory of a certain expressive strength is incomplete.
Here, "theory" refers to a set of statements. (A theory is in general an infinitely large set.) A theory is "consistent" if it does not prove any contradictions. The meaning of "it is possible to construct" is that there is some mechanical procedure which when given the axioms of the theory, produces another statement. That this statement is not provable in the theory means that it cannot be derived from statements of the theory using the standard rules of first-order logic. The statement produced by the procedure is often referred to as "the Gödel sentence" for that theory, though there are actually infinitely many statements that have the same property (of being true but not provable from the theory)."
My non-mathematical interpretation of that would say any consistant theory contains assumptions which are not proven by the theory itself, and therefore no theory can either self-prove or generate new statements which are proven. In the real world, this theorem seems to correspond to the practice of empiricism where we reason a hypothetical path and then follow it by attempting observation. We can't just reason the path and claim we know anything, yet it has seemed to me that is just what Doctordick has been saying.
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
. . . the conformance is not to "pure logic" but in some sort of analogic or isomorphic way there must be a conformance between the explanation and something real, about which we know nothing.
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The epistomology known as correspondence seems to cover this. I'll grant that the ambiguous use of the term "proof" might be the problem, but that still leaves me wondering about somehting Doctordick seem to imply.
For example, you/he says:
Originally Posted by Paul Martin
Instead, in Dick's Theorem the "if" is a statement about the consistency of some explanation, and the "then" is the assertion that a particular way of interpreting that explanation must exist, viz. one which obeys the laws of physics. No claim of anything about reality is express, and it is only implied if the "explanation" is claimed to have something to do with reality, and such claim does not bear on Dick's result.
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Is this to be interpreted strictly within the context of theoretical physics? If so, then I have nothing more to say since it isn't what I am concerned about in this thread. In this thread we are talking about the "reality" of the mystical experience, and so when you say ". . . that explanation must exist, viz. one which obeys the laws of physics," is Doctordick's idea that to be real an explanation must have a physical counterpart?
I must say that in past discussions, such as in "Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics," I have thought he has said exactly that. If that is the case, then he's built in an a priori assumption about the nature of reality that automatically acts a filter. Yes, everything physical can be reduced to pure physics, but that doesn't imply that everything is physical.
In regard to the mystical experience, we may not even be able to fit it to the math side . . . what if it is purely known on the experiential side? If so, the demand that it be revealed by any theoretical process is futile.
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