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E.H is a Lorentz invariant, when is it different from 0 ? |
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| May30-06, 02:53 PM | #1 |
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E.H is a Lorentz invariant, when is it different from 0 ?
From the Lorentz-invariant Faraday tensor F(H,E) two scalar invariants can be constructed:
Inv1 = H²-E²and Inv2 = E.HThinking at waves, electrostatic fields, magnetostatic fields, I see examples where Inv2 = 0. It is however easy to arrange an electrostatic field and a magnetostatic field to be parallel, so to get an exemple where Inv2 =/= 0. But this situation is not very interresting, maybe because it is made of static and independent sources. I would be interrested to know if there are less trivial and more interresting examples of fields where Inv2 =/= 0 , if there is a general physical meaning to this condition, and generally what is the physical importance of this invariant. Thanks for your comments, Michel |
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