
#1
Jun2107, 12:31 PM

P: 224

I've recently started Feynman & Gibbs. I was sure exercises will be fun, but i can't enjoy myself when i fail solving the first one! Exercise 11 says: show that free particle action is
[tex]\frac{m}{2} \frac{x_b^2  x_a^2}{t_bt_a}[/tex] I tried finding antiderivative of [itex]\dot x^2[/itex], ended up with [itex]x\dot x  \int x d(\dot x)[/itex] via integration by parts. Couldn't do much about the integral. Of course, I know the solution, and can show it using EulerLagrange equations, [itex]x=vt[/itex] where [itex]v[/itex] is a constant (taking [itex]x_0=0[/itex]). I can "solve" the question by substituting [itex]x[/itex] in the action integral [tex]S = \int_{t_a}^{t_b} \frac{m}{2}v^2 dt[/tex] but i suppose this counts as cheating kinda solving backwards. Any ideas on how this kind of stuff can be solved? 



#2
Jun2207, 12:40 AM

P: 443

It's not cheating. The action have different values on different paths. The principle of least action claims that the actual path will extremize the action.
They want you to find the path that extremizes the action by using the usual EulerLagrange equations. You know the answer should be motion of constant velocity, x = xa + vt, where v = const = (xbxa)/(tbta). Then you plug that in and evaluate the action on that path. 



#3
Jun2207, 10:50 AM

P: 1,504

[tex]\frac{m}{2} \frac{(x_b  x_a)^2}{t_bt_a}[/tex] [tex]S = \int_{t_a}^{t_b} \L dt[/tex] where L = T  V; T = kinetic energy and V = potential energy; In this case, V = 0 and T = [tex] \frac{m}{2}v^2 [/tex] and to write kinetic energy you surely don't need EuleroLagrange equations, I hope, kinetic energy is defined in that way! So: [tex]S = \int_{t_a}^{t_b} \frac{m}{2}v^2 dt[/tex] Where is the problem? Always start from definitions. 



#4
Feb1711, 05:06 PM

HW Helper
P: 1,584

Free Particle Action
This looks wrong but the equation of motion here is [tex]\ddot{x}=0[/tex], so:
[tex] S=\frac{m}{2}\int_{t_{a}}^{t_{b}}\dot{x}^{2}dt=\left[ x\dot{x}\right]_{t_{a}}^{t_{b}}\int_{t_{a}}^{t_{b}}x\ddot{x}dt [/tex] Now in second integral is zero by the equation of motion. Not too sure where to go from here. 



#5
Feb1711, 10:18 PM

P: 969

So you get [tex]\left[ x\dot{x}\right]_{t_{a}}^{t_{b}}=\dot{x}(x_bx_a)=\frac{(x_bx_a)^2}{t_bt_a} [/tex] So you can check that the derivative of the action: [tex]S=\frac{m}{2}\frac{(x_bx_a)^2}{t_bt_a} [/tex] with respect to x_b equals momentum, and with respect to time equals negative energy (which in this case is just kinetic). 


Register to reply 
Related Discussions  
where is action free?  Linear & Abstract Algebra  0  
Poincare invariant action of a point particle  Classical Physics  5  
Poincaré invariant action of a point particle  Advanced Physics Homework  4 