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what is renormalization and what does it do? |
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| Sep15-07, 10:48 PM | #18 |
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what is renormalization and what does it do?[tex] U(t) = \exp(\frac{i}{\hbar}Ht) [/tex] In QED (and QCD) we know the Hamiltonian H pretty well. We know that it contains infinite renormalization counterterms and that it allows us to calculate the S-matrix very accurately. Now, let us take this Hamiltonian and try to solve some simple time-dependent problems. Let's not talk about "time varying symmetry breaking", which, as far as I know, is not well-understood yet. Let us consider the simplest possible task of calculating the time evolution of a 1-electron state [itex] | \Psi(0) \rangle = a^{\dag} |0 \rangle[/itex]. My point is that the naive quantum-mechanical expression [tex] | \Psi(t) \rangle = \exp(\frac{i}{\hbar}Ht) | \Psi(0) \rangle [/tex] just doesn't make sense in this case. For example, it would predict unphysical processes, like "electron -> electron + photon". Is there another (less naive) approach to this simple problem? Eugene. |
| Sep16-07, 07:47 AM | #19 |
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BTW, there are even more deep-rooted reasons to believe that "the dream is dead" -- see the discussions of Leonard Susskind's work, e.g. http://rabett.blogspot.com/2006_01_01_archive.html What exactly do you mean by "it is known that two electrons are *exactly* identical"? I don't see how an argument of particle identity can help you in extrapolating to arbitrary small scales which are never probed. E.g., two hydrogen atoms in their respective ground states are exactly identical, and there no way to prove their compositness once the energy of allowed experiments is well below the hyperfine splitting (the distance to the first excited state) = 21 cm wavelength. The very fact the we can have BEC means that the atoms being condensed are indistinguishable, once we cool the things cold enough. For me a clear indication that QED alone has told everything it can is the fact that in the most recent tests of measured vs. calculated electron magnetic moment, the greatest uncertainty is in a tiny correction which come due to polarization of the hadronic vacua -- at high enough orders (energies), you cann't use QED alone. |
| Sep16-07, 10:25 AM | #20 |
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A good example is of course the Fermi model of the weak interaction, which can be used as an eft as long as energies are much below the weak scale (the W mass, say), including in loop diagrams. The non-renormalizability of the theory indicated the need for new physics which had nothing to do with granularity of spacetime. What are the conditions under which the dressed particle appraoach may be applied? Could it have been applied to cure the infinities of the Fermi model? In that case it would have missed the fact that there *was* a new underlying theory: the gauge weak interaction. Finally, let me emphasize that the eft approach is extremely useful not only as a way to think of new physics but also to describe known theories at low wnergies. For example chiral perturbation theory, heavy quark eft and NRQCD for the strong force at low energies.. (there is also an equivalent to NRQCD called NRQED....you may recognize my handle). So the concept of eft has proven extremely successful as a tool that works very well to describe known theories. It suggests to me that it is a useful tool for describing known theories relative to "new physics". But I don't know anything about the dressed particle approach and it would be certainly interesting to learn. I guess my first question qwould be: what are the conditions in which it is applicable? Could it has "solved" the Fermi model? Could it be used to decsribe QCD at low energies? Regards Patrick |
| Sep16-07, 04:15 PM | #21 |
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However, I believe that the "dressed particle" approach is not merely a different mathematical formalism. For me the biggest surprise was to learn that this approach predicts instantaneous (not retarded) Coulomb and magnetic interactions between charged particles. It appears that this conclusion does not contradict the usual field-based S-matrix approach, because, as I tried to point out earlier, the latter approach can't tell much about the time evolution of interacting systems and, therefore, about the speed of propagation of interactions. Moreover, at closer inspection, it appears that the possibility of faster-than-light interactions does not contradict any experimental evidence either. There are quite a few recent experiments (e.g., photon tunneling) which can be interpreted from the viewpoint of instantaneous interactions. So, in my opinion, this debate (which, supposedly, was closed 100 years ago) is now wide open. Eugene. |
| Sep16-07, 04:54 PM | #22 |
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As a result, we obtain a finite Hamiltonian in which particles interact via instantaneous potentials. This Hamiltonian produces the same S-matrix as the original field-theoretical Hamiltonian. However, the advantage is that you'll not need regularization and renormalization. All loop integrals will be finite. Moreover, you can easily form the time evolution operator with this Hamiltonian, and you can diagonalize this Hamiltonian to get energies and wave functions of bound states, as is normally done in non-relativistic quantum mechanics. (These procedures were quite troublesome with the original field-theoretic Hamiltonian). The only significant difference with respect to ordinary quantum mechanics (where the number of particles was assumed fixed) is that interactions changing the number of particles are allowed as well, e.g., "2 electrons -> 2 electrons + photon" Eugene. |
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