Stumped on \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{a_{n}}}}

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the convergence properties of the series \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{a_{n}}}\) given that \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{n}}}\) diverges. Participants explore whether the divergence of the first series is guaranteed under these conditions, examining specific sequences and their implications.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that if \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{n}}}\) diverges, it is unclear whether \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{a_{n}}}}\) also diverges.
  • Another participant provides an example where \(a_0=1\) and \(a_n=n\) for \(n>0\), noting that both series diverge in this case.
  • A participant seeks clarification on whether all series of the form \(a_n=kn+c\) diverge, indicating that while they know this holds, it does not encompass all divergent series.
  • One participant questions whether the requirement for \(a_{a_n}\) to make sense necessitates that \(a_n\) be an increasing, unbounded sequence of positive integers, suggesting that any subsequence would also diverge.
  • Another participant presents a counterexample with \(a_n=n^2\), stating that both series converge, highlighting the difficulty in finding an example where the first diverges and the second converges.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on whether the divergence of \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{n}}}\) guarantees the divergence of \(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{a_{n}}}}\). There is no consensus on this issue, and multiple competing views remain.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the properties of the sequence \(a_n\) play a crucial role in determining the convergence of the series, with specific examples illustrating the complexity of the problem. The discussion highlights the need for careful consideration of the definitions and conditions applied to the sequences.

Nexus[Free-DC]
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This thing has me tearing my hair out:

Let {a0, a1,...} be a sequence such that
[tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{n}}}[/tex] diverges.

Does [tex]\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\frac{1}{a_{a_{n}}}}[/tex] diverge?

My first instinct was to say no, but then I couldn't find any counterexamples. Now I am thinking it might actually be true but it has defied all the tests I've tried. Any ideas?
 
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Let a0=1 and an=n for n>0. Both series are the same and diverge.
 
Sorry, I guess I wasn't clear enough. Do ALL such series diverge? I already know all series of the form an=kn+c do since aan = k(kn+c)+c=k^2n+kc+c, but that doesn't cover all divergent series.
 
Doesn't your requirement that aan make sense require that an be an increasing, unbounded, sequence of positive integers- and so any subsequence will diverge?
 
If an=n2, both series converge. It looks like it would be hard to construct an example where the first diverges and second converges.
 

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