Originally Posted by regor60
Could have made this stipulation before his demise ? Think it would hold up ?
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Yeah, I'm not sure-- I can imagine it being iffy. There might be disputes in those cases where a potential "wife" would by default be able to lay claim to the deceased's value (property, money, etc). I can easily imagine that this has come up before and that there's some sort of legal precedent that's been established. I'm just too lazy to go verify it.
DaveE