Hi Everyone,
I am currently reading Apostol's "Mathematical Analysis" to introduce myself to some advanced calculus techniques I will need in probability. Usually the proofs in this book are fairly straight forward, without too many missed steps, which is why I think this book is great for self study. I was reading about the Levi's convergence theorem for step functions and didn't like the proof that Apostol gives. To me it seems unnecessarily long and counter-intuitive. I think I have an alternative proof which is simpler to understand and shorter. But I started doubting myself, why would he present a long winded proof, when there is a simpler available - maybe something in my proof is wrong and I just can't spot it? That is why I want to share it here, maybe someone would be able to quickly see an error in my reasoning. Thank you very much in advance for anyone caring to taking a look.
Theorem:
Let

be a sequence of step functions such that:
1). for every

,
2).

exists.
Then

converges almost everywhere on

to a limit function

.
Proof:
Since integrals of

converge, they must be bounded. Suppose that

. Let

be a set of points x of I such that

diverges. Given any

, define:

Then we have:
Also, each

is a finite collection of intervals. Define

to be the sum of the lengths of these intervals.
Now for any n:
So that

. From this we get that

.
Since

,

is covered by a countable collection of intervals the sum of whose lengths is less than any

, therefore

has measure zero.
From this it follows that

is bounded almost everywhere, and so converges almost everywhere on I to some function

.