## What is the inverse laplace transform of this?

$$F(s) = \frac{1}{K^s}$$

where K is a positive real.
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 Hint: Write this as exp[-s Log(k)] Then compare this to the Laplace integral: Integral of exp(-s t) f(t) dt So, it looks like if you take f(t) to be a function that has a very large peak around t = Log(K), you'll get the correct Laplace transform up to some normalization. Now think of making this line of reasoning more precise...
 So is it $$\delta(t-\log(K))$$?

## What is the inverse laplace transform of this?

 Quote by Charles49 So is it $$\delta(t-\log(K))$$?
That's right!

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