How Do We Handle Sub-Events in Function Normalization?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the normalization of functions, particularly in the context of quantum mechanics and wavefunctions. Participants explore the implications of normalizing probabilities and the concept of sub-events within larger spaces.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that normalization ensures the total probability of all possible outcomes equals 1, similar to the normalization of wavefunctions in quantum mechanics.
  • Another participant questions the implications of normalizing a sub-event within a larger space, noting that while the universe as a whole has a probability of 1, individual events may have less than 1.
  • A different participant asserts that recognizing an event as a sub-event does not change the normalization process, emphasizing that quantum mechanics operates under idealized conditions due to limited information about the universe.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of normalizing sub-events, with some agreeing on the necessity of normalization while others challenge the completeness of this approach in the context of larger systems.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations in understanding the complete state of the universe and the assumptions involved in idealizing systems for quantum mechanics.

manesh
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hello
I need more ideas about the normalization of functions..like Guassian..
I think this is to make the possibility of all events =1.(like in Q. mechanics we normalize wavefunctions). So the area under the curve is constant..
if anybody has more ideas please reply
manesh
 
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manesh said:
hello

Hello manesh, and welcome to Physics Forums.

I need more ideas about the normalization of functions

Well...

I think this is to make the possibility of all events =1.

Yes, that's it right there. That's the only reason we normalize wavefunctions: so that the total probability of all possible outcomes is 1. There's nothing deeper than that to it.

Or are you asking about how to do it?
 
Tom Mattson said:
Yes, that's it right there. That's the only reason we normalize wavefunctions: so that the total probability of all possible outcomes is 1. There's nothing deeper than that to it.
Yes, but what happens when we recognize that some event we normalize to 1 is itself just a sub-event in a larger space? All we do know with absolute certainty is that the universe as a whole exists. The probability of the universe is 1. Everything else has less that a probability of 1.
 
I know how to do it..just asked if somebody has more ideas... :biggrin:
 
Mike2 said:
Yes, but what happens when we recognize that some event we normalize to 1 is itself just a sub-event in a larger space?

Nothing changes, because we already recognize that. We simply do not have total information on the complete state of the universe, so when we do QM we have to consider an idealized system in isolation from the rest of the universe. Since the approach agrees well with experiment, I have no problem with it.
 

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