Proving the Limit of n! / n^n = 0 to Using Sequence Definition

  • Thread starter Thread starter courtrigrad
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Limit Proof
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of the sequence defined by n! / n^n as n approaches infinity, specifically showing that this limit equals 0. The subject area is primarily focused on sequences and limits in calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various methods to approach the limit, including using the definition of a sequence, comparing the growth rates of n! and n^n, and considering the ratio test. Some question the validity of certain comparisons and seek clarification on concepts related to powers and products.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with multiple participants offering different perspectives and approaches. Some suggest breaking down the fraction or using properties of sequences, while others express uncertainty about their reasoning. There is no explicit consensus, but several productive lines of inquiry are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention constraints such as the need to adhere to specific definitions and rules regarding sequences and limits, as well as the potential for misunderstanding the nature of powers in relation to factorial growth.

courtrigrad
Messages
1,236
Reaction score
2
how would you prove

lim (n! / n^n) = 0
n--> 00


Should I use the definition of a sequence? like n! < what

n^n is less than what? and find limit of this?

thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm sorry...I'm kind of rusty with this stuff, so I can't offer anything that would constitute a proof, but at first glance, I noticed the following:

[tex]n^n = n \cdot n \cdot n \cdot n...n \cdot n \cdot n[/tex]
'n' times

WHEREAS

[tex]n! = n(n-1)(n-2)...3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1[/tex].

Clearly, the first product is larger than the second, and in the limit as n approaches infinity, the difference between them will be on the order of infinity as well, so if the denominator is infinitely larger than the numerator...

I realize this doesn't help answer the question. Also, I've heard that it is not correct to think of a power such as [itex]x^n [/tex] as 'n' x's multiplied together, but I cannot remember why. Can someone clarify?[/itex]
 
Last edited:
I don't think that's right
 
Maybe you can split the fraction into the product two parts... one that goes to zero, and one that's bounded...
 
Just a rough guess:

Use the ratio test to show that the sequence converges (where n only takes on integral values) and then use that to show that the function converges (assuming there some sort of rule that says you can do that).
 
You could show that the sequence is monotonically decreasing.
i.e. show that:
[tex]\frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}}<\frac{n!}{n^n}[/tex]
Together with the fact that the sequence is bounded below...
 
The simplest way is to look at the sequence using even integers (n=2m):
Then:
[tex]n!\leq(\frac{n}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}n^{\frac{n}{2}}[/tex]
[tex]n^{n}=n^{\frac{n}{2}}n^{\frac{n}{2}}[/tex]
Hence, your ratio is bounded by:
[tex]\frac{n!}{n^{n}}\leq(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}[/tex]

This is, of course, along the lines Hurkyl indicated.
 
Last edited:
ok thanks a lot everyone. Thats what the book wanted me to do.
 

Similar threads

Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
4K
  • · Replies 9 ·
Replies
9
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 24 ·
Replies
24
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K