Jan9-12, 08:51 AM
if I have χψ*ψ term in the Lagrangian, the scattering ψψ→ψψ behaves as if we had a potential (non-rel. limit) Exp(-mr)/r.
but when I try to calculate the expectation value of χψ*ψ in any state I get zero.
is that a different kind of potential energy? does it have to do with re-normalization?
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