Perturbation Theory: Calculating Ground State Eigenfunction of Particle in a Box

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the ground state eigenfunction of a particle in a box with a specific perturbation. The potential is defined as V(x)=0 for 0

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of using only the first three eigenfunctions for the perturbation calculation, questioning whether this approach aligns with theoretical expectations. There is also a focus on the orthogonality of eigenfunctions and the implications for the integrals involved.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants questioning the necessity of using all eigenfunctions versus a limited set. Some guidance has been provided regarding the orthogonality of eigenfunctions and the conditions under which certain integrals may yield zero. There is an acknowledgment of the need to verify the calculations of the integrals.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, including the specific perturbation and the implications of using a limited number of eigenfunctions. There are references to the orthogonality of eigenfunctions and the conditions under which integrals may cancel out, which are central to the discussion.

danja347
Messages
22
Reaction score
0
I have a problem where I should calculate the ground state eigenfunction of a particle in the box where the potential V(x)=0 when 0<x<L and infinite everywhere else with the perturbation [itex]V'(x)=\epsilon[/itex] when L/3<x<2L/3.

I get that the total ground state eigenfunction with the first order perturbation contribution is
[tex] u_{1}=u_{01}+{\int_{L/3}^{2L/3} {u_{02}\hat H' u_{01}dx} \over (E_{01}-E_{02})}u_{02}+{\int_{L/3}^{2L/3} {u_{03}\hat H' u_{01}dx} \over (E_{01}-E_{03})}u_{03}[/tex]
where
[itex] \hat H'=\epsilon}[/itex] and [itex]u_{0n}/E_{0n}=[/itex] eigenfunctions/energies of the unperturbed system.
I only need to use [itex]\{u_{01},u_{02},u_{03}\}[/itex] instead of all [itex]\{u_{0n}\}[/itex] when expressing the first order perturbation contribution
[tex]u_{11}=\sum_k a_{nk}u_{0k}[/tex]

Is this correct?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
danja347 said:
I have a problem where I should calculate the ground state eigenfunction of a particle in the box where the potential V(x)=0 when 0<x<L and infinite everywhere else with the perturbation [itex]V'(x)=\epsilon[/itex] when L/3<x<2L/3.

I get that the total ground state eigenfunction with the first order perturbation contribution is
[tex] u_{1}=u_{01}+{\int_{L/3}^{2L/3} {u_{02}\hat H' u_{01}dx} \over (E_{01}-E_{02})}u_{02}+{\int_{L/3}^{2L/3} {u_{03}\hat H' u_{01}dx} \over (E_{01}-E_{03})}u_{03}[/tex]
where
[itex] \hat H'=\epsilon}[/itex] and [itex]u_{0n}/E_{0n}=[/itex] eigenfunctions/energies of the unperturbed system.
I only need to use [itex]\{u_{01},u_{02},u_{03}\}[/itex] instead of all [itex]\{u_{0n}\}[/itex] when expressing the first order perturbation contribution
[tex]u_{11}=\sum_k a_{nk}u_{0k}[/tex]

Is this correct?

Why do you use only the three vectors [itex]\{u_{01},u_{02},u_{03}\}[/itex],when the theory states u should be using all the eigenvectors associated to eigenvalues different from the one (nondegenerate) u want to compute first orde corrections?

Daniel.
 
It is just an approximation and the only way I can think of an explanation to why the problem i´m supposed to solve says i only need to use these three is that they contribute most to the correction...

Daniel
 
Last edited:
On the other hand... how should i do if i needed to use all [itex]\{u_{0n}\}[/itex] How would i get [itex]a_{nk}[/itex] in that case? Please tell me if what i have got for [itex]u_1[/itex] above is correct because then i know if its me that can't integrate because i get that the integrals are zero or if i have set it all up wrong!?

Daniel
 
Yes,the theory states that those vectors (corresponding to different energy levels) are orthogonal,and since the perturbation is a constant,then all its matrix elements between orthogonal states should annulate.
On the other hand,are u sure with the integrations??There are products of sine/cosine functions.Only in certain conditions they annulate.And besides,the eigenfunctions are orthonormalized on the domain [0,L],and yet you're integrating them on a simmetric domain wrt to the middle of the interval L/2.So if that product of eigenfunctions is an odd function,then u shouldn't be surprised the result is zero.
Check whether the products of eigenfunctions are odd.If so,the result is that the corrections to the eigenvector are identically null.
 
I calculated the integrations again and only one of them was equal to zero.
That looks a lot better since it would be strange if the eigenfunction didn´t change when adding the disturbance!

Thanks!

/Daniel
 

Similar threads

Replies
28
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
3K
  • · Replies 60 ·
3
Replies
60
Views
9K
Replies
2
Views
3K