How Do You Approach the Limit of π/2 Using Trigonometric Functions?

  • Thread starter Thread starter twoflower
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Limits Test
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The limit of the expression lim_{x → π/2+} (√(1 - sin x))/(log(2x/π)) approaches 1/log(2) as x approaches π/2 from the right. The discussion highlights the transformation of the limit into a more manageable form using the known limit lim_{x → 1} (log x)/(x - 1) = 1. The participants emphasize the importance of justifying each step based on established theorems, despite some initial intuitive reasoning. The final conclusion confirms that the limit simplifies to 1/log(2) due to the continuity of the involved functions.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with trigonometric functions, specifically sine
  • Knowledge of logarithmic functions and their properties
  • Ability to manipulate expressions involving limits and continuity
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of limits involving trigonometric functions
  • Learn about the continuity of functions and its implications for limits
  • Explore the application of L'Hôpital's Rule in evaluating limits
  • Investigate the derivation and applications of the limit lim_{x → 1} (log x)/(x - 1)
USEFUL FOR

Students preparing for calculus exams, educators teaching limits and continuity, and mathematicians interested in trigonometric limit evaluations.

twoflower
Messages
363
Reaction score
0
Hi all, I've been practising limits for test, which is approaching very fast :) Let's have this limit:

[tex] \lim_{x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}_{+}} \frac{ \sqrt{1 - \sin x}}{\log \frac{2x}{ \pi }}[/tex]

I played with that so I got this form:

[tex] \lim \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+\sin x}} \frac{1}{\frac{\log \frac{2x}{\pi}}{\cos x}}[/tex]

It can be seen that the second fraction is inversed well known limit

[tex] \lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \frac{ \log{x} } { x - 1 } = 1[/tex]

Then, I can write

[tex] = \lim \frac{1}{ \sqrt{1 + \sin x }} = \frac{ \sqrt{2} } { 2 }[/tex]

The problem is, I don't know how to justify my method exactly. You see, we have to base all your steps on the theorem we use for it, we must prove the conditions and so on...And in this limit I did it rather ty intuition...

So how would the precise solution look like?

Thank you.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
I don't see any reason to make it so complex. AT x= π sin x= 0 so the numerator is 1. Assuming that that "3.14" in the denominator is actually π, then the denominator is log 2 which is not 0. Since all functions are continuous in the appropriate neighbohoods, the limit is 1/log(2).
 
HallsofIvy said:
I don't see any reason to make it so complex. AT x= π sin x= 0 so the numerator is 1. Assuming that that "3.14" in the denominator is actually π, then the denominator is log 2 which is not 0. Since all functions are continuous in the appropriate neighbohoods, the limit is 1/log(2).
I'm sorry, I didn't write the LaTeX code properly, so I had to edit it. Now it's how it should be.
 

Similar threads

Replies
28
Views
2K
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
18
Views
2K
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K