
#1
Jan2605, 11:21 PM

P: 5

I'm not sure if these are very clear questions, but here goes:
1. If a fairly large nucleus is set spinning, then it should generate a small magnetic dipole, right? I'm wondering, how would you calculate it's magnetic moment, using the properties of that particular nuclide (e.g. mass, charge, etc), the speed at which it's spinning, etc? 2. Same as above, except with a cation that has a given number of electrons. 



#2
Jan2705, 03:04 AM

P: 4,008

Quantummechanics learns us that the magnetization M is equal to [tex]\vec{M} = \frac{ \mu_{B}( \vec{L} + g_{s} \vec{S})}{\hbar}[/tex] The mu represents the Bohrmagneton, L is angular momentum and S is the spin. The g represents the gyromagnetic ratio. This formula was check experimentally via the Stern and Gerlach experiment and the Zeemanneffect for the spin quantumnumber. Now, for a given atom we can derive the possible L and S values by applying the laws of quantummechanics. This formula is especially valid for the orbiting electrons that indeed are equivalent to a magnetic dipole which yields the magnetization M. The orbitspeed is incorporated in L. An analoguous formula can be derived for an atomic nucleus. In order to identify an unknown atom , one can excite it and then register it's emissionspectrum coming from the emitted radiation when the atom deexcites. each atom has a different emissionspectrum so this is like looking at the passport of an unknown atom. Many other options (using the above explained theory predicted by QM) are possible. Eg : nuclar magnetic resonance, etc regards marlon 



#3
Jan2805, 01:23 AM

P: 5




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