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Field transformation in Peskin-Schroeder (chapter 3) |
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| Jun27-12, 10:33 AM | #1 |
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Field transformation in Peskin-Schroeder (chapter 3)
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
There is something I don't understand about eq. 3.110 (there is no need of the complete equation actually) in Peskin Schroeder. What I need to do is to use the unitary transformation law obtained for one-particle states to get the usual transformation law for the Dirac field (under Lorentz transformations). 2. Relevant equations 3. The attempt at a solution I've been able to obtain the law stated in P.S. I also checked the result with the similar law for scalar field transformation and still I don't understand. I guess I might be wrong somewhere: I started from Peskin's law for scalar fields: [itex]\Phi[/itex](x) [itex]\rightarrow[/itex] [itex]\Phi[/itex]'(x) = [itex]\Phi[/itex]([itex]\Lambda[/itex]-1x) Here the book reads: the transformed field, evaluated at the boosted point, gives the same value as the original field evaluated at the point before boosting. From this I understand that the previous relation - with explicit notation for coordinate systems - becomes: [itex]\Phi[/itex](x(O)) [itex]\rightarrow[/itex] [itex]\Phi[/itex]'(x(O')) = [itex]\Phi[/itex]([itex]\Lambda[/itex]-1x(O')) which gives the correct law for scalars: [itex]\Phi[/itex](x(O)) [itex]\rightarrow[/itex] [itex]\Phi[/itex]'(x(O') = [itex]\Phi[/itex](x(O)) Now, in chapter 3.5, I find: U([itex]\Lambda[/itex])[itex]\Psi[/itex](x)U-1([itex]\Lambda[/itex]) = [itex]\Lambda[/itex]1/2-1 [itex]\Psi[/itex]([itex]\Lambda[/itex]x) Or the equivalent for scalar field (which is not in Peskin): U([itex]\Lambda[/itex])[itex]\Phi[/itex](x)U-1([itex]\Lambda[/itex]) = [itex]\Phi[/itex]([itex]\Lambda[/itex]x) That looks good, provided that I understand the change in the tranformation action due to the fact that we are transforming the ladder operators in Dirac field. But here comes my question: In deriving these equations, no change was made on coordinate system, so to me they read: [itex]\Phi[/itex](x(O)) [itex]\rightarrow[/itex] [itex]\Phi[/itex]'(x(O)) = [itex]\Phi[/itex]([itex]\Lambda[/itex]x(O)) Which is not the same - even accounting for the transformation change. I apologize for the long post on such an inessential question but I could really use some help on this. Thanks. |
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